Focus on Adult Health Exam
Exam Study Guide: GRADED
A+. Practice Questions and
Verified Answers WITH
RATIONALES. Latest 2026
Update
A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking spironolactone for the treatment of
hypertension. Which findings denote adverse effects of the medication? Select
all that apply. - Ans✔✔-Tall T waves
Prolonged PR interval
Hyperactive bowel sounds
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Potassium-sparing
diuretics can cause hyperkalemia. Cardiovascular manifestations of
hyperkalemia include tall T waves, widened QRS complexes, prolonged PR
intervals, and flat P waves. Other cardiovascular manifestations include an
irregular heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and ectopic heartbeats. Muscle
twitches occur in hyperkalemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds and diarrhea also
occur in hyperkalemia. Constipation, hyporeflexia, and shallow respirations are
signs of hypokalemia.
,A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing a loss of appetite and
complains of feeling "too full to eat." What does the nurse encourage the client
to do? Select all that apply. - Ans✔✔-Avoid drinking fluids before and during
meals
Select foods that are easy to chew and are not gas forming
Rationale: COPD is a progressive and irreversible condition characterized by
diminished inspiratory and expiratory capacity of the lungs. Instruct the client
who complains of feeling too full to eat, to avoid drinking fluids before and
during the meal. Dry foods such as crackers stimulate coughing; foods such as
milk and chocolate may increase the thickness of saliva and secretions. Cheese
is constipating and should also be avoided by the client. The nurse should also
teach the client about foods that are easy to chew and do not encourage the
formation of gas; for this reason, broccoli, which is a gas-forming food, should
be avoided.
A tuberculin skin test (TST) is administered to a client with a diagnosis of HIV
infection. Forty-eight hours after administration, the nurse checks the test site
(see image). - Ans✔✔-Positive
Rationale: The tuberculin, or TST, test is a reliable determinant of tuberculosis
(TB) infection. A reaction measuring 5 mm or more in diameter is considered
positive in a client with HIV infection. A reaction measuring 10 mm or more in
diameter is considered positive in a non-immunosuppressed client. In this
instance, the area of induration measures 9 mm, indicating a positive reaction.
A positive reaction does not mean that active disease is present, but it does
indicate exposure to TB or the presence of inactive (dormant) disease.
A nurse is interpreting a central venous pressure (CVP) reading from a client in
whom right ventricular failure has been diagnosed. From this diagnosis, the
nurse would expect that the most likely result is a pressure of - Ans✔✔-14 cm
H2O
,Rationale: CVP measurements are used to monitor blood volume and the
adequacy of venous return to the heart. The CVP measures pressures from the
right atrium or central veins. The normal CVP is 7 to 12 cm H2O. An increased
CVP reading may indicate right ventricular failure. A low CVP reading may
indicate hypovolemia. A reading of 4 cm H2O is low. Readings of 8 and 11 cm
H2O are normal. A reading of 14 cm H2O is increased.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone thyroidectomy. Which
technique is the best way for the nurse to assess the surgical site for bleeding?
- Ans✔✔-Checking for moisture on the back of the dressing over the client's
neck and shoulders
Rationale: Thyroid surgery may be complicated by hemorrhage, respiratory
distress, parathyroid gland injury (resulting in hypocalcemia and tetany),
damage to the laryngeal nerves, and thyroid storm. Hemorrhage is most likely
during the 24 hours after surgery. If the client is bleeding after surgery, gravity
will cause the blood to seep down the sides of the dressing and drain onto the
underlying bed linens even as the top of the dressing remains clean and dry.
Asking the client whether the dressing feels wet and replacing the dry sterile
dressing every 2 hours are not the best actions. Replacing the dressing
frequently when it is not warranted could also increase the risk of infection.
A client who sustained a major burn injury is beginning to take an oral diet
again. Which between-meal menu selections meet the client's needs for
wound healing and tissue repair? Select all that apply. - Ans✔✔-Whole-milk
shake and granola
Baked potato topped with cheese
Cheese and whole-wheat crackers
Rationale: To facilitate healing and meet continued high metabolic needs, the
client with a major burn should eat a diet high in calories, protein, and
carbohydrates. This type of diet also keeps the client in positive nitrogen
balance. Foods such as milkshakes, granola, cheese, and whole-wheat products
, are acceptable choices. Though fresh fruits and vegetables and skim milk are
high in nutrients, higher-calorie foods, including versions of dairy products
prepared with whole milk, are preferable in this situation.
A client is found to have hypoparathyroidism. Which nutritional supplement
does the nurse, teaching the client about measures to manage the disorder, tell
the client to take on a daily basis? - Ans✔✔-Calcium carbonate with vitamin D
Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is an endocrine disorder in which parathyroid
function is decreased. The client with hypoparathyroidism is likely to have low
calcium and high phosphate levels and should consume a diet high in calcium
but low in phosphorus. Additionally, the generally used treatment is calcium
supplementation (either as calcium carbonate or calcium citrate) coupled with
vitamin D supplementation. Vitamin C supplementation is not a treatment
measure for this disorder. Beta-carotene is incorrect, because a client with
hypoparathyroidism typically has an increased phosphorus level
A nurse participating in a free health screening at the local mall obtains a
random blood glucose level of 190 mg/dL (10.6 mmol/L) and a total cholesterol
level of 210 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L) in an otherwise healthy client. What should
the nurse tell the client to do next? - Ans✔✔-Call his health care provider to
have these values rechecked as soon as possible
Rationale: Adult diabetes mellitus may be diagnosed on the basis of symptoms
(e.g., polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia) or laboratory values. An abnormal
glucose tolerance test, a random plasma glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL
(11.1 mmol/L), and a fasting plasma glucose level greater than 140 mg/dL (7.8
mmol/L) on two separate occasions are all diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. The
total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L). Confirmation of
this client's results is needed to ensure appropriate diagnosis and therapy.
Levothyroxine sodium is prescribed for a client with hypothyroidism, and the
nurse provides information to the client about the medication. Which
Exam Study Guide: GRADED
A+. Practice Questions and
Verified Answers WITH
RATIONALES. Latest 2026
Update
A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking spironolactone for the treatment of
hypertension. Which findings denote adverse effects of the medication? Select
all that apply. - Ans✔✔-Tall T waves
Prolonged PR interval
Hyperactive bowel sounds
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Potassium-sparing
diuretics can cause hyperkalemia. Cardiovascular manifestations of
hyperkalemia include tall T waves, widened QRS complexes, prolonged PR
intervals, and flat P waves. Other cardiovascular manifestations include an
irregular heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and ectopic heartbeats. Muscle
twitches occur in hyperkalemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds and diarrhea also
occur in hyperkalemia. Constipation, hyporeflexia, and shallow respirations are
signs of hypokalemia.
,A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing a loss of appetite and
complains of feeling "too full to eat." What does the nurse encourage the client
to do? Select all that apply. - Ans✔✔-Avoid drinking fluids before and during
meals
Select foods that are easy to chew and are not gas forming
Rationale: COPD is a progressive and irreversible condition characterized by
diminished inspiratory and expiratory capacity of the lungs. Instruct the client
who complains of feeling too full to eat, to avoid drinking fluids before and
during the meal. Dry foods such as crackers stimulate coughing; foods such as
milk and chocolate may increase the thickness of saliva and secretions. Cheese
is constipating and should also be avoided by the client. The nurse should also
teach the client about foods that are easy to chew and do not encourage the
formation of gas; for this reason, broccoli, which is a gas-forming food, should
be avoided.
A tuberculin skin test (TST) is administered to a client with a diagnosis of HIV
infection. Forty-eight hours after administration, the nurse checks the test site
(see image). - Ans✔✔-Positive
Rationale: The tuberculin, or TST, test is a reliable determinant of tuberculosis
(TB) infection. A reaction measuring 5 mm or more in diameter is considered
positive in a client with HIV infection. A reaction measuring 10 mm or more in
diameter is considered positive in a non-immunosuppressed client. In this
instance, the area of induration measures 9 mm, indicating a positive reaction.
A positive reaction does not mean that active disease is present, but it does
indicate exposure to TB or the presence of inactive (dormant) disease.
A nurse is interpreting a central venous pressure (CVP) reading from a client in
whom right ventricular failure has been diagnosed. From this diagnosis, the
nurse would expect that the most likely result is a pressure of - Ans✔✔-14 cm
H2O
,Rationale: CVP measurements are used to monitor blood volume and the
adequacy of venous return to the heart. The CVP measures pressures from the
right atrium or central veins. The normal CVP is 7 to 12 cm H2O. An increased
CVP reading may indicate right ventricular failure. A low CVP reading may
indicate hypovolemia. A reading of 4 cm H2O is low. Readings of 8 and 11 cm
H2O are normal. A reading of 14 cm H2O is increased.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone thyroidectomy. Which
technique is the best way for the nurse to assess the surgical site for bleeding?
- Ans✔✔-Checking for moisture on the back of the dressing over the client's
neck and shoulders
Rationale: Thyroid surgery may be complicated by hemorrhage, respiratory
distress, parathyroid gland injury (resulting in hypocalcemia and tetany),
damage to the laryngeal nerves, and thyroid storm. Hemorrhage is most likely
during the 24 hours after surgery. If the client is bleeding after surgery, gravity
will cause the blood to seep down the sides of the dressing and drain onto the
underlying bed linens even as the top of the dressing remains clean and dry.
Asking the client whether the dressing feels wet and replacing the dry sterile
dressing every 2 hours are not the best actions. Replacing the dressing
frequently when it is not warranted could also increase the risk of infection.
A client who sustained a major burn injury is beginning to take an oral diet
again. Which between-meal menu selections meet the client's needs for
wound healing and tissue repair? Select all that apply. - Ans✔✔-Whole-milk
shake and granola
Baked potato topped with cheese
Cheese and whole-wheat crackers
Rationale: To facilitate healing and meet continued high metabolic needs, the
client with a major burn should eat a diet high in calories, protein, and
carbohydrates. This type of diet also keeps the client in positive nitrogen
balance. Foods such as milkshakes, granola, cheese, and whole-wheat products
, are acceptable choices. Though fresh fruits and vegetables and skim milk are
high in nutrients, higher-calorie foods, including versions of dairy products
prepared with whole milk, are preferable in this situation.
A client is found to have hypoparathyroidism. Which nutritional supplement
does the nurse, teaching the client about measures to manage the disorder, tell
the client to take on a daily basis? - Ans✔✔-Calcium carbonate with vitamin D
Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is an endocrine disorder in which parathyroid
function is decreased. The client with hypoparathyroidism is likely to have low
calcium and high phosphate levels and should consume a diet high in calcium
but low in phosphorus. Additionally, the generally used treatment is calcium
supplementation (either as calcium carbonate or calcium citrate) coupled with
vitamin D supplementation. Vitamin C supplementation is not a treatment
measure for this disorder. Beta-carotene is incorrect, because a client with
hypoparathyroidism typically has an increased phosphorus level
A nurse participating in a free health screening at the local mall obtains a
random blood glucose level of 190 mg/dL (10.6 mmol/L) and a total cholesterol
level of 210 mg/dL (5.4 mmol/L) in an otherwise healthy client. What should
the nurse tell the client to do next? - Ans✔✔-Call his health care provider to
have these values rechecked as soon as possible
Rationale: Adult diabetes mellitus may be diagnosed on the basis of symptoms
(e.g., polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia) or laboratory values. An abnormal
glucose tolerance test, a random plasma glucose level greater than 200 mg/dL
(11.1 mmol/L), and a fasting plasma glucose level greater than 140 mg/dL (7.8
mmol/L) on two separate occasions are all diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. The
total cholesterol should be less than 200 mg/dL (5.2 mmol/L). Confirmation of
this client's results is needed to ensure appropriate diagnosis and therapy.
Levothyroxine sodium is prescribed for a client with hypothyroidism, and the
nurse provides information to the client about the medication. Which
