Course Code: NSG 3100
Instructor:
Date: 2026
FINAL EXAM – FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS AND SKILLS
FOR NURSING PRACTICE
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
A nurse is caring for a patient with impaired skin integrity. Which stage of
pressure ulcer involves full-thickness tissue loss with exposed bone, tendon,
or muscle?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Answer: D) Stage IV
Rationale: Stage IV pressure ulcers involve full-thickness tissue loss with
exposed bone, tendon, or muscle, requiring advanced wound care.
Which of the following actions is the priority when performing hand hygiene
to prevent healthcare-associated infections?
A) Use alcohol-based hand rub for 5 seconds
B) Scrub hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds
C) Wear gloves and avoid hand washing
D) Use antiseptic wipes only after patient contact
Answer: B) Scrub hands with soap and water for at least 20 seconds
Rationale: Effective hand washing requires scrubbing for a minimum of 20
seconds to remove pathogens.
When administering an IM injection, the preferred site for a 5-year-old child
is:
1
,A) Ventrogluteal
B) Deltoid
C) Vastus lateralis
D) Dorsogluteal
Answer: C) Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the safest IM site for young children due to
muscle development and fewer nerves.
What is the primary reason nurses perform a head-to-toe assessment?
A) To focus only on complaint-related symptoms
B) To obtain a comprehensive baseline health status
C) To administer medications safely
D) To complete documentation quickly
Answer: B) To obtain a comprehensive baseline health status
Rationale: A head-to-toe assessment provides a thorough baseline for
comparison during care.
Which nursing action best reduces the risk of aspiration in a patient with
dysphagia?
A) Encourage drinking thickened liquids
B) Allow the patient to eat quickly
C) Position patient supine during feeding
D) Avoid oral intake completely
Answer: A) Encourage drinking thickened liquids
Rationale: Thickened liquids reduce aspiration risk in patients with
swallowing difficulties.
True/False Questions
The standard precaution requires wearing gloves only when there is a risk of
contact with blood or body fluids.
Answer: True
Rationale: Gloves are worn when contact with blood, bodily fluids, mucous
membranes, or broken skin is anticipated.
Restraints should be applied to all confused patients to prevent injury.
Answer: False
Rationale: Restraints are used only as a last resort with proper orders and
assessment to avoid harm and respect patient rights.
A sterile field can be maintained as long as the nurse avoids coughing or
sneezing over it.
Answer: False
Rationale: Maintaining sterility involves multiple factors including proper
2
,technique, field placement, and avoiding contamination beyond coughing or
sneezing.
Measurement of intake and output is essential in evaluating fluid balance in
critically ill patients.
Answer: True
Rationale: Accurate intake/output measurements guide fluid management
and prevent complications like dehydration or overload.
Patient identification must be verified before any medication administration.
Answer: True
Rationale: Verifying patient ID prevents medication errors and ensures safe
delivery of care.
Short Answer Questions
Explain the chain of infection and name its six components.
Answer: The chain of infection is the process by which infections spread. Its
six components are infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of
transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.
Rationale: Understanding this helps nurses break infection transmission at
any point.
Describe two nursing interventions to prevent falls in the hospital setting.
Answer: Interventions include ensuring a clutter-free environment and using
bed/chair alarms.
Rationale: These reduce patient risk by minimizing hazards and alerting staff.
What is the significance of the ‘time-out’ procedure during invasive
procedures?
Answer: It verifies patient identity, procedure correctness, and site to prevent
errors.
Rationale: It enhances patient safety by preventing wrong-site or wrong-
procedure errors.
List three signs of effective oxygen therapy in patients with respiratory
distress.
Answer: Improved oxygen saturation, decreased work of breathing, and
improved mental status.
Rationale: These indicate successful oxygen delivery and improved
respiration.
What assessment data indicates a need for catheter care in a hospitalized
patient?
3
, Answer: Cloudy urine, foul odor, or patient complaints of discomfort.
Rationale: These signs suggest possible infection or catheter complications
needing care.
Matching Questions
Match the following wound descriptions (Column A) with their corresponding
stage or type (Column B):
A (Wound Description) B (Stage/Type)
a1. Red, non-blanchable area b1. Stage I
a2. Partial thickness skin loss b2. Stage II
a3. Full-thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat visible b3. Stage III
a4. Presence of slough or eschar b4. Unstageable
a5. Deep tissue injury b5. Deep tissue injury
Answers:
a1 - b1
a2 - b2
a3 - b3
a4 - b4
a5 - b5
Rationale: Correct identification guides appropriate wound management.
Fill in the Blank
The ______________ nerve is at risk when administering an injection in the
dorsogluteal site.
Answer: sciatic
Rationale: The sciatic nerve runs near the dorsogluteal site; injury can cause
severe complications.
The nurse uses ___________ precautions when caring for a patient with
tuberculosis.
Answer: airborne
Rationale: TB is transmitted via airborne droplets requiring specific
precautions.
A sterile field is considered contaminated if the nurse turns their back to the
field for more than __________ seconds.
Answer: 30
Rationale: This increases risk of contamination by losing visual control over
the field.
The acronym SBAR stands for Situation, Background, ______________, and
4