EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior (AP) chest
and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - (answer)Portable X-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - (answer)False; CSRE has
been largely replaced by CT scan
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? - (answer)Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - (answer)Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma
bay for radiation safety. - (answer)lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any
personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit. The
recommended minimal distance is _____. - (answer)6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has
become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients.
FAST stands for____________________. - (answer)Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for
Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of ___. - (answer)98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury. -
(answer)False; Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) remains the most sensitive
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, andemergency physicians,
can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergencydepartment on a hand held portable device. -
(answer)True
,EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine mostcommonly using a standard 3-
7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. - (answer)US
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of______________ in certain
areas of the body. - (answer)intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? - (answer)liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upperquadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? - (answer)Spleen and kidney
An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
(answer)antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrentsolid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - (answer)True
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog,utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and ratesof contrast administration. -
(answer)False (pediatric)
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sentelectronically ahead of
time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as abackup. - (answer)True
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acutemanagement of
combat trauma was extensively establishment during OperationEnduring Freedom. - (answer)False
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditiousradiologic screening of
injuries. - (answer)Role 3
,EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - (answer)False (only at risk
for acoustic trauma)
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - (answer)hearing loss, tinnitus, aural fullness, recruitment,
difficulty
localizing sounds, difficulty hearing background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either_____________or
_____________. - (answer)temporary or permanent
The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blastinjury. -
(answer)tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater thelikelihood is of
spontaneous closure. - (answer)True
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do sowithin the first
___________ after injury. - (answer)8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objectivedocumentation of facial
movement using the _____________ scale. - (answer)House-Brackmann grading scale
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided
regardless of contraindications. - (answer)False; if not contraindicated
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - (answer)benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
(BPPV), damage to sensitive neuroepthileial rests, perilymphatic
fistula, otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular
nerves, trauma induced endolymphatic hyrops, and activation of subclincical superior semicircular canal
dehiscence
, EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acutetinnitus, muffled
hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - (answer)Be educated and directed to self-report for evaluation and
possible treatment as
soon as practical.
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal orin the middle ear? -
(answer)Treat the patient with a fluroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test oraudiogram. -
(answer)72 hours
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - (answer)True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: - (answer)have the
exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing
testing as soon as possible
Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive frequenciesshould be considered
candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroidinjections when not otherwise
contraindicated. - (answer)25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - (answer)comatose
patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns
over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are athigh risk of
hypothermia. - (answer)20% TBSA
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediatelydebride blisters and
cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - (answer)False; do not debride blisters
and cover with loose, dry gauze or a clean sheet
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior (AP) chest
and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) - (answer)Portable X-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine radiographic
evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - (answer)False; CSRE has
been largely replaced by CT scan
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? - (answer)Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - (answer)Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available near the trauma
bay for radiation safety. - (answer)lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition, any
personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit. The
recommended minimal distance is _____. - (answer)6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma patients, it has
become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients.
FAST stands for____________________. - (answer)Focused Abdominal Sonographic Assessment for
Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of ___. - (answer)98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury. -
(answer)False; Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) remains the most sensitive
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, andemergency physicians,
can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergencydepartment on a hand held portable device. -
(answer)True
,EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine mostcommonly using a standard 3-
7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. - (answer)US
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of______________ in certain
areas of the body. - (answer)intraperitoneal fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? - (answer)liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upperquadrant. You are
inspecting between which two organs? - (answer)Spleen and kidney
An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
(answer)antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrentsolid organ
enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - (answer)True
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog,utilize a scanning
protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and ratesof contrast administration. -
(answer)False (pediatric)
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sentelectronically ahead of
time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as abackup. - (answer)True
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acutemanagement of
combat trauma was extensively establishment during OperationEnduring Freedom. - (answer)False
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditiousradiologic screening of
injuries. - (answer)Role 3
,EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - (answer)False (only at risk
for acoustic trauma)
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - (answer)hearing loss, tinnitus, aural fullness, recruitment,
difficulty
localizing sounds, difficulty hearing background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either_____________or
_____________. - (answer)temporary or permanent
The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blastinjury. -
(answer)tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater thelikelihood is of
spontaneous closure. - (answer)True
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do sowithin the first
___________ after injury. - (answer)8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objectivedocumentation of facial
movement using the _____________ scale. - (answer)House-Brackmann grading scale
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be provided
regardless of contraindications. - (answer)False; if not contraindicated
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - (answer)benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
(BPPV), damage to sensitive neuroepthileial rests, perilymphatic
fistula, otic capsule violating temporal bone fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular
nerves, trauma induced endolymphatic hyrops, and activation of subclincical superior semicircular canal
dehiscence
, EFMB Written Test Exam Study Guide & Practice Questions | Expert Field Medical Badge Prep
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acutetinnitus, muffled
hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - (answer)Be educated and directed to self-report for evaluation and
possible treatment as
soon as practical.
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal orin the middle ear? -
(answer)Treat the patient with a fluroquinolone and steroid containing topical antibiotic
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test oraudiogram. -
(answer)72 hours
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - (answer)True
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: - (answer)have the
exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing
testing as soon as possible
Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive frequenciesshould be considered
candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroidinjections when not otherwise
contraindicated. - (answer)25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? - (answer)comatose
patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns
over 40% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are athigh risk of
hypothermia. - (answer)20% TBSA
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediatelydebride blisters and
cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - (answer)False; do not debride blisters
and cover with loose, dry gauze or a clean sheet
