EMD | ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | NEWEST
UPDATE 2026/2027
Question 1
An effective quality improvement program in an emergency dispatch center must include case
review, feedback, and which of the following?
A) Increased disciplinary actions
B) Continuing dispatch education (CDE)
C) Annual physical fitness testing
D) Mandatory overtime sessions
E) Public relations training
Correct Answer: B) continuing dispatch education (CDE)
Rationale: Quality improvement is not just about finding errors; it requires ongoing
education to ensure EMDs maintain their skills and stay current with protocol changes.
Question 2
In the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS), how are words or phrases that have a specific
dispatch definition identified?
A) Italicized text
B) Underlined text
C) Bolded red text
D) All uppercase text (all capital letters)
E) Words followed by an asterisk (*)
Correct Answer: D) all uppercase text (all capital letters)
Rationale: The use of all capital letters signifies that a term has a specific, codified definition
within the MPDS that the dispatcher must understand and apply.
Question 3
Which of the following lists correctly identifies the "Priority Symptoms" in emergency dispatch?
A) Nausea, headache, blurred vision, and fever
B) Abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of consciousness, and
SERIOUS hemorrhage
C) Broken bones, vomiting, dizziness, and minor bleeding
D) Back pain, sore throat, cough, and fainting
E) Abdominal pain, rash, toothache, and anxiety
Correct Answer: B) abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of
consciousness, and SERIOUS hemorrhage
Rationale: Priority Symptoms are those that represent the greatest immediate threat to life
and require high-level determinant coding.
Question 4
An alert, 34-year-old male reports chest pain with slight difficulty breathing and clammy skin.
He has no history of heart attack and has taken no drugs in 12 hours. What is the most
appropriate Determinant Code?
, 2
A) 10-A-1
B) 10-C-2
C) 10-D-1
D) 10-D-4
E) 10-B-1
Correct Answer: D) 10-D-4
Rationale: In Protocol 10 (Chest Pain), the presence of "clammy" skin in a patient with
chest pain is a high-level indicator requiring a Delta-level response, specifically 10-D-4.
Question 5
When using the MPDS, who is responsible for predetermining the actual response assignments
and emergency modes (lights-and-siren vs. no lights-and-siren)?
A) The individual EMD handling the call
B) The caller requesting the ambulance
C) Local Medical Control and EMS Administration
D) The responding paramedics
E) The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch
Correct Answer: C) local Medical Control and EMS Administration
Rationale: While the MPDS provides the determinant codes, the actual "flavor" of the
response (units sent and mode of travel) is a local medical-legal decision.
Question 6
A dispatcher using the Stroke Diagnostic Tool notes a slight difference in the patient's smile and
unequal arm drift, though the patient spoke a test sentence correctly. How should this be
classified?
A) No evidence of stroke
B) Weak evidence of stroke
C) STRONG evidence of stroke
D) Indeterminate result
E) TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack)
Correct Answer: C) STRONG evidence of stroke
Rationale: Any single failure (facial droop, arm drift, or speech) in the diagnostic tool is
considered strong evidence of an acute stroke.
Question 7
Which of the following best defines "cervical cerclage"?
A) A method of checking a fetal heart rate
B) A surgical procedure to prevent premature dilation of the cervix and premature labor
C) An emergency delivery technique for breech births
D) The removal of the ovaries to prevent cancer
E) A type of medication used to induce labor
, 3
Correct Answer: B) a surgical procedure meant to prevent premature dilation of the cervix
and, therefore, premature labor
Rationale: EMDs must understand medical terminology; a cerclage is a "stitch" used to
keep the cervix closed during pregnancy.
Question 8
An 85-year-old female reports her heart is beating "way too fast." She is awake and breathing
effectively. After Case Entry, which protocol should the EMD use?
A) Protocol 10: Chest Pain
B) Protocol 12: Convulsions/Seizures
C) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
D) Protocol 31: Falls
E) Protocol 6: Breathing Problems
Correct Answer: C) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
Rationale: Complaints of a fast heart rate (tachycardia) or palpitations in an awake patient
are handled under Protocol 19.
Question 9
A caller reports her husband is currently having a seizure. During Case Entry, she states he is not
awake and is not breathing, but is still seizing. Which Chief Complaint Protocol should be used?
A) Protocol 9: Cardiac or Respiratory Arrest
B) Protocol 12: Convulsions/Seizures
C) Protocol 31: Falls
D) Protocol 10: Chest Pain
E) Protocol 23: Overdose
Correct Answer: B) Convulsions/Seizures
Rationale: If a patient is currently seizing, the EMD should use Protocol 12, even if the
caller reports the patient isn't breathing, as the seizure often makes breathing appear
ineffective or absent.
Question 10
What is "repetitive persistence"?
A) Repeating the address five times to ensure accuracy
B) A calming technique using a firm but caring tone to repeat a phrase containing an action and a
reason
C) A method of keeping the caller on the line until help arrives
D) Asking the same key question until the caller answers correctly
E) Constantly checking the patient's breathing status
Correct Answer: B) A calming technique in which the calltaker repeats a phrase verbatim
using a firm but caring tone. The phrase should contain both an action and a reason for the
action.
, 4
Rationale: Repetitive persistence helps break through "hysterical threshold" by providing
the caller with a clear command and a justification.
Question 11
A 81-year-old mother fell and may have broken her hip. She is awake and breathing. However,
the caller mentions she was dizzy and may have fainted before the fall. What is the correct
action?
A) Stay on Protocol 17 (Falls)
B) Shunt to Protocol 31 (Fainting)
C) Shunt to Protocol 10 (Chest Pain)
D) Shunt to Protocol 12 (Seizures)
E) Stay on Protocol 17 but add a cardiac code
Correct Answer: B) Shunt to Protocol 31.
Rationale: If a fall is preceded by fainting or dizziness, the underlying cause (fainting) is the
priority for interrogation to rule out cardiac or other medical issues.
Question 12
During Case Entry, a caller reports a man is currently on fire. What should the EMD do next?
A) Ask for the patient's age
B) Ask if he has difficulty breathing
C) Immediately initiate a 7-E-1 response and provide Case Entry PDIs
D) Transfer the call to the Fire Department and disconnect
E) Tell the caller to find a fire extinguisher
Correct Answer: C) Immediately initiate a 7-E-1 response and provide the appropriate Case
Entry PDIs.
Rationale: A person on fire is an "Echo" level emergency requiring immediate dispatch and
Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs) such as "Stop, Drop, and Roll."
Question 13
If the EMD cannot understand the caller’s language and no one on duty can assist, what is the
correct procedure?
A) Disconnect the call and hope they call back
B) Send 32-B-4, contact a language line, and reconfigure as appropriate
C) Guess the Chief Complaint based on background noise
D) Send a 9-E-1 response immediately
E) Transfer the call to the police
Correct Answer: B) send 32-B-4, immediately contact a language line service, if available,
and reconfigure as appropriate.
Rationale: Protocol 32 (Unknown Problem) provides a "Unknown Language" code (32-B-4)
to get help started while a translator is found.
UPDATE 2026/2027
Question 1
An effective quality improvement program in an emergency dispatch center must include case
review, feedback, and which of the following?
A) Increased disciplinary actions
B) Continuing dispatch education (CDE)
C) Annual physical fitness testing
D) Mandatory overtime sessions
E) Public relations training
Correct Answer: B) continuing dispatch education (CDE)
Rationale: Quality improvement is not just about finding errors; it requires ongoing
education to ensure EMDs maintain their skills and stay current with protocol changes.
Question 2
In the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS), how are words or phrases that have a specific
dispatch definition identified?
A) Italicized text
B) Underlined text
C) Bolded red text
D) All uppercase text (all capital letters)
E) Words followed by an asterisk (*)
Correct Answer: D) all uppercase text (all capital letters)
Rationale: The use of all capital letters signifies that a term has a specific, codified definition
within the MPDS that the dispatcher must understand and apply.
Question 3
Which of the following lists correctly identifies the "Priority Symptoms" in emergency dispatch?
A) Nausea, headache, blurred vision, and fever
B) Abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of consciousness, and
SERIOUS hemorrhage
C) Broken bones, vomiting, dizziness, and minor bleeding
D) Back pain, sore throat, cough, and fainting
E) Abdominal pain, rash, toothache, and anxiety
Correct Answer: B) abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of
consciousness, and SERIOUS hemorrhage
Rationale: Priority Symptoms are those that represent the greatest immediate threat to life
and require high-level determinant coding.
Question 4
An alert, 34-year-old male reports chest pain with slight difficulty breathing and clammy skin.
He has no history of heart attack and has taken no drugs in 12 hours. What is the most
appropriate Determinant Code?
, 2
A) 10-A-1
B) 10-C-2
C) 10-D-1
D) 10-D-4
E) 10-B-1
Correct Answer: D) 10-D-4
Rationale: In Protocol 10 (Chest Pain), the presence of "clammy" skin in a patient with
chest pain is a high-level indicator requiring a Delta-level response, specifically 10-D-4.
Question 5
When using the MPDS, who is responsible for predetermining the actual response assignments
and emergency modes (lights-and-siren vs. no lights-and-siren)?
A) The individual EMD handling the call
B) The caller requesting the ambulance
C) Local Medical Control and EMS Administration
D) The responding paramedics
E) The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch
Correct Answer: C) local Medical Control and EMS Administration
Rationale: While the MPDS provides the determinant codes, the actual "flavor" of the
response (units sent and mode of travel) is a local medical-legal decision.
Question 6
A dispatcher using the Stroke Diagnostic Tool notes a slight difference in the patient's smile and
unequal arm drift, though the patient spoke a test sentence correctly. How should this be
classified?
A) No evidence of stroke
B) Weak evidence of stroke
C) STRONG evidence of stroke
D) Indeterminate result
E) TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack)
Correct Answer: C) STRONG evidence of stroke
Rationale: Any single failure (facial droop, arm drift, or speech) in the diagnostic tool is
considered strong evidence of an acute stroke.
Question 7
Which of the following best defines "cervical cerclage"?
A) A method of checking a fetal heart rate
B) A surgical procedure to prevent premature dilation of the cervix and premature labor
C) An emergency delivery technique for breech births
D) The removal of the ovaries to prevent cancer
E) A type of medication used to induce labor
, 3
Correct Answer: B) a surgical procedure meant to prevent premature dilation of the cervix
and, therefore, premature labor
Rationale: EMDs must understand medical terminology; a cerclage is a "stitch" used to
keep the cervix closed during pregnancy.
Question 8
An 85-year-old female reports her heart is beating "way too fast." She is awake and breathing
effectively. After Case Entry, which protocol should the EMD use?
A) Protocol 10: Chest Pain
B) Protocol 12: Convulsions/Seizures
C) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
D) Protocol 31: Falls
E) Protocol 6: Breathing Problems
Correct Answer: C) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
Rationale: Complaints of a fast heart rate (tachycardia) or palpitations in an awake patient
are handled under Protocol 19.
Question 9
A caller reports her husband is currently having a seizure. During Case Entry, she states he is not
awake and is not breathing, but is still seizing. Which Chief Complaint Protocol should be used?
A) Protocol 9: Cardiac or Respiratory Arrest
B) Protocol 12: Convulsions/Seizures
C) Protocol 31: Falls
D) Protocol 10: Chest Pain
E) Protocol 23: Overdose
Correct Answer: B) Convulsions/Seizures
Rationale: If a patient is currently seizing, the EMD should use Protocol 12, even if the
caller reports the patient isn't breathing, as the seizure often makes breathing appear
ineffective or absent.
Question 10
What is "repetitive persistence"?
A) Repeating the address five times to ensure accuracy
B) A calming technique using a firm but caring tone to repeat a phrase containing an action and a
reason
C) A method of keeping the caller on the line until help arrives
D) Asking the same key question until the caller answers correctly
E) Constantly checking the patient's breathing status
Correct Answer: B) A calming technique in which the calltaker repeats a phrase verbatim
using a firm but caring tone. The phrase should contain both an action and a reason for the
action.
, 4
Rationale: Repetitive persistence helps break through "hysterical threshold" by providing
the caller with a clear command and a justification.
Question 11
A 81-year-old mother fell and may have broken her hip. She is awake and breathing. However,
the caller mentions she was dizzy and may have fainted before the fall. What is the correct
action?
A) Stay on Protocol 17 (Falls)
B) Shunt to Protocol 31 (Fainting)
C) Shunt to Protocol 10 (Chest Pain)
D) Shunt to Protocol 12 (Seizures)
E) Stay on Protocol 17 but add a cardiac code
Correct Answer: B) Shunt to Protocol 31.
Rationale: If a fall is preceded by fainting or dizziness, the underlying cause (fainting) is the
priority for interrogation to rule out cardiac or other medical issues.
Question 12
During Case Entry, a caller reports a man is currently on fire. What should the EMD do next?
A) Ask for the patient's age
B) Ask if he has difficulty breathing
C) Immediately initiate a 7-E-1 response and provide Case Entry PDIs
D) Transfer the call to the Fire Department and disconnect
E) Tell the caller to find a fire extinguisher
Correct Answer: C) Immediately initiate a 7-E-1 response and provide the appropriate Case
Entry PDIs.
Rationale: A person on fire is an "Echo" level emergency requiring immediate dispatch and
Post-Dispatch Instructions (PDIs) such as "Stop, Drop, and Roll."
Question 13
If the EMD cannot understand the caller’s language and no one on duty can assist, what is the
correct procedure?
A) Disconnect the call and hope they call back
B) Send 32-B-4, contact a language line, and reconfigure as appropriate
C) Guess the Chief Complaint based on background noise
D) Send a 9-E-1 response immediately
E) Transfer the call to the police
Correct Answer: B) send 32-B-4, immediately contact a language line service, if available,
and reconfigure as appropriate.
Rationale: Protocol 32 (Unknown Problem) provides a "Unknown Language" code (32-B-4)
to get help started while a translator is found.
