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Florida Funeral Law Exam Latest Edition

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Florida Funeral Law Exam Latest Edition 1. Pre-need contract - ANSWER Any arrangement or method, of which the provider of funeral merchandise or services has actual knowledge, whereby any person agrees to furnish funeral merchandise or service in the future 2. Preneed sales agent - ANSWER Any person who is licensed under chapter 487 to sell preneed burial or funeral service and merchandise contracts or direct disposition contracts in Florida 3. Processing - ANSWER The reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation and processing to unidentifiable bone fragments by manual means 4. Pulverization - ANSWER The reduction of identifiable bone fragments after the completion of the cremation and processing to granulated particles by manual or mechanical means 5. Refrigeration facility - ANSWER A facility that is operated independently of a funeral establishment, crematory, or direct disposal establishment that maintains space and equipment for the storage and refrigeration of dead human bodies 6. Removal services - ANSWER Any service that operates independently of a funeral establishment or a direct disposal , that handles the initial removal of dead human bodies, and that offers its service to funeral establishments and direct disposal establishments for a fee 7. Scattering garden - ANSWER A location set aside, within a cemetery, that is used for the spreading of broadcasting of cremated remain that have been removed from their container and can be mixed with or placed on top of the soil or ground cover or buried in an underground receptacle on a commingled basis and that are nonrecoverable 8. Solicitation - ANSWER Any communication that directly or implicitly requests an immediate oral response from the recipient 9. Temporary container - ANSWER A receptacle for cremated remains usually made of cardboard, plastic, or similar material designated to hold the cremated remains until an urn or other permanent container is acquired 10. Urn - ANSWER A receptacle designed to permanently encase cremated remains 11. Protect the right to make decisions regarding disposition, protect consumer for funeral goods & services, establish minimum standards - ANSWER Purposes of Chapter 497 12. Mowing grass, pruning shrubs & trees - ANSWER Things that may be included in the Care & Maintenance of a cemetery 13. Readily combustible, able to be completely closed, leak & spill resistant, rigid enough to be handled with ease, provide protection for crematory operator - ANSWER 5 standards which a cremation container must meet 14. Decedent prior to death, person named by decedent, spouse, children, parents, siblings, grandchild, grandparent, next degree of kinship - ANSWER List the priority by which persons may be the legally authorized person to decide disposition 15. All 5 - ANSWER If a decedent had 5 children and no surviving spouse, how many of the children are required by law to sign a cremation authorization form 16. Anyone in the funeral business - ANSWER To whom may a refrigeration facility offer its services 17. Funeral establishments & direct disposers - ANSWER To whom may a removal service offer its services 18. 10 - ANSWER How many members are on the Board of Funeral, Cemetery, and Consumer Services 19. 2 funeral directors, 1 funeral director with a crematory & preneed, 2 cemeterians, 1 monument maker, health officer, 3 consumers - ANSWER List the composition of the Board of Funeral, Cemetery, & Consumer Services 20. No - ANSWER May 2 members of the Board be employed by the same company 21. 4 years - ANSWER How long are the terms of office of Board Members 22. Governor - ANSWER Who may temporarily suspend a Board member for malfeasance, etc? 23. Senate - ANSWER Who may permanently remove a Board member? 24. 3 in a row or half for the year - ANSWER How many meetings may a board member miss before they are considered to have resigned from the Board 25. No - ANSWER Can a hospital or nursing home operate a direct disposal establishment 26. $5 - ANSWER What is the amount of the fee imposed upon initial licensure and each renewal thereof to combat unlicensed activity 27. Embalmer apprentice, embalmer intern, funeral director intern, funeral director, funeral director & embalmer, direct disposer, monument establishment sales agent, preneed agent - ANSWER Why types of license may only be issued to a natural person, that is may not be issued to a corporation or other business entity 28. Funeral establishment, centralized embalming facility, refrigeration facility, direct disposal establishment, monument establishment, cinerator facility, removal service, preneed sales business - ANSWER What types of license may either a corporation or a natural person apply for 29. No - ANSWER May a natural person apply for a cemetery license 30. No - ANSWER Are licenses transferable if the business sells to another owner 31. 10 years - ANSWER How many years prior to an application, must an applicant have no conviction of guilt of a crime in order for the application to be considered complete

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Florida 240 License Exam Questions
with Verified Correct Answers | Latest
Update


1. Disability income policies can provide coverage for a loss of income when
returning to work only part-time after recovering from total disability. What
is the benefit that is based on the insured's loss of earnings after recovery
from a disability? - ANSWER Residual disability
A residual disability will pay an amount to make up the difference between what
the insured would have earned before the loss.


2. An insured is involved in an accident that renders him permanently deaf,
although he does not sustain any other major injuries. The insured is still
able to perform his current job. To what extent will he receive Presumptive
Disability benefits? - ANSWER Full benefits
Presumptive Disability plans offer full benefits for specified conditions.


3. Which of the following is NOT provided by an HMO?


a) Reimbursement
b) Services
c) Financing
d) Patient care - ANSWER a) Reimbursement
The HMO provides benefits in the form of services rather than in the form of
reimbursement for the services of the physician or hospital.

, 4. In order to maintain coverage under COBRA, how soon from termination of
employment must an employee exercise extension of benefits? - ANSWER
60 days
Under COBRA, terminated employees must exercise extension of benefits within
60 days of separation from employment.


5. When Linda suffered a broken hip, she notified her agent, in writing, within
12 days of the loss. However, her agent did not notify the insurance
company until 60 days after the loss. how would this claim be handled? -
ANSWER The insurer is considered to be notified since the notification to
agent equals notification to the insurer.
Notice to the agent equals notice to the insurer. The agent is the insurer's
representative.


6. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a guaranteed renewable
provision?


a) The insured has a unilateral right to renew the policy for the life of the
contract.
b) Coverage is not renewable beyond the insured's age 65.
c) The insured's benefits cannot be reduced
d) The insurer can increase the policy premium on an individual basis. -
ANSWER d) The insurer can increase the policy premium on an
individual basis.


Guaranteed renewable provision has all the same features that the
noncancellable provision does, with the exception that the insurer can increase
the policy premium on the policy anniversary date. However, the premiums can
only be increased on a class basis, not on an individual policy.

, 7. Which of the following is NOT required to be stated in the outline of
coverage provided with a long-term care policy?


a) The right to return the policy for a refund
b) Basic information about the insurance company
c) Basic information about supplementary policies
d) The policy number - ANSWER c) Basic information about
supplementary policies
outline of coverage must follow standard format included in insurance regulations.
Must include information about the insurance company, the policy number,
important features of the policy, and explain the right to return the policy for a
refund.


8. All of the following are required provisions in all individual health insurance
policies delivered in this state EXCEPT
a) Grace period.
b) Reinstatement.
c) Misstatement of age.
d) Entire contract. - ANSWER c) Misstatement of age.


Misstatement of age is an optional health insurance policy provision, meaning
that it may be included in a policy at the option of the insurer.
9. An individual applies for a life policy. Two years ago he suffered a head
injury from an accident, so he cannot remember parts of his past, but is
otherwise competent. He has also been hospitalized for drug abuse, but does
not remember this when applying for insurance. The insurer issues the
policy and learns of his history one year later. What will probably happen? -
ANSWER The policy will not be affected.


In insurance, fraud is the intentional misrepresentation of material information
that is crucial when deciding whether or not to write a contract for an applicant.
If an insurer finds that an applicant has committed fraud, it can void the

, contract, provided that the discovery occurs within the first two years of the
effective policy date. In this particular instance the applicant did not commit
intentional fraud.


10.A long-term care shopper's guide must be presented at what point? -
ANSWER Prior to the time of application A long-term care insurance
shopper's guide must be provided in the format developed by the National
Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC). The shopper's guide must
be presented to the applicant prior to completing the application.


11.In individual health insurance coverage, the insurer must cover a newborn
from the moment of birth, and if additional premium payment is required,
how many days should be allowed for payment? - ANSWER Within 30
days of birth


12.The insured must notify the insurer of a newly born dependent, and if
additional payment is required, pay within 30 days.
In order to maintain an insurance license, an agent will need to satisfy Florida's
continuing education requirement of : - ANSWER 24 hours of continuing
education in every 2-year period.


An insured submits a proof of loss form within 10 days of a loss. The insurer,
however, does not acknowledge the form for 3 months. Which of the following
violations has the insurer committed? - ANSWER Unfair claims settlement


Failing to affirm or deny coverage of claims within a reasonable time after proof of
loss statements are completed and submitted by insureds is an example of unfair
claims settlement.


If a person accumulates more continuing education hours than is necessary to
fulfill the requirements for a 2-year period, what will occur? - ANSWER The

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