PEAT Exam 3 Newest 2026 Complete 200 Questions
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1. A physical therapist is evaluating a 70 year-old female
patient who reports the onset of midthoracic pain after
working in a garden for several hours. The presence of
which of the following history items should increase the
therapist's suspicion of a thoracic compression fracture in
the patient?
A. Bowel and bladder dysfunction
B. Smoking and prolonged steroid use
C. Hypertension and diabetes
D. Emphysema and hormone replacement therapy -
ANSWER-B
Bowel and bladder dysfunction are related to spinal
cord/upper motor neuron dysfunction. Smoking and
steroids can weaken bone and increase the likelihood for
a compression fracture. Hypertension and diabetes are
not risk factors for a compression fracture. Although
emphysema is a pulmonary disease, by themselves,
neither emphysema, nor hormone replacement therapy,
increases the likelihood of a compression fracture.
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1. Which of the following sleeping positions is LEAST
appropriate for a physical therapist to recommend for a
patient with right glenohumeral joint anterior/inferior
hypermobility and subacromial impingement?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Right sidelying
D. Left sidelying - ANSWER-C
Often the supine position is not tolerated with an anterior
hypermobility, as the humeral head is pushed anteriorly
somewhat in this position. Prone is neither a good nor bad
position, as far as this scenario is concerned. It would be
difficult for this patient to get the shoulder in a comfortable
position while lying prone. Right sidelying would be painful
and could compromise circulation to the patient's joint. It
could also stress the capsule with an underlying
hypermobility. Of all the positions listed, left sidelying
would be most well tolerated by this patient.
1. Which of the following joints is indicated by the arrow in
the radiograph?
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A. Tibiofibular
B. Subtalar
C. Talocrural
D. Midtarsal - ANSWER-C
The joint indicated in the radiograph is the talocrural
(ankle) joint.
1. Which of the following positions is BEST to assess the
length of a patient's rectus femoris muscle?
A. Sidelying with tested hip in flexion
B. Supine with tested hip and knee in flexion
C. Prone with tested knee in flexion
D. Sidelying with tested hip in extension - ANSWER-C
Option A does not mention the knee position and has the
hip flexed, which shortens the rectus femoris. Option B
has the hip flexed, which shortens the rectus femoris.
Prone with the knee in flexion keeps the hip in neutral and
does not allow the hip to flex. It describes the Ely test.
Option D has the hip in the correct position, but does not
mention the knee position.
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1. A patient with an L4 - L5 posterolateral herniated
nucleus pulposus is MOST likely to have sensory deficits
in which of the following locations?
A. Medial knee
B. Medial ankle
C. Plantar aspect of the foot
D. Dorsum of the great toe - ANSWER-D
The medial knee is the L3 dermatome. The medial ankle is
L4 dermatome. The plantar foot is S1 or S2. A
posterolateral disc bulge at L4- L5 will most likely affect
the L5 nerve root and the dermatome for the L5 nerve
root. The L5 dermatome includes the dorsal aspect of the
great toe. The dorsal area of the great toe is consistently
included in the L5 dermatome.
1. Which of the following descriptions describes the
correct physical examination technique to assess tissue
hydration in the hand?
A. Pinch and lift the skin and determine the time for the
skin to return to normal.