HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
LATEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED
A+ GUARANTEED PASS- ACE YOUR EXAM
A client who is prescribed chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) for schizophrenia
develops rigidity, a shuffling gait, and tremors. Which action by the nurse is most
important?
A.Administer a dose of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) PRN.
B.Determine if the client has increased photosensitivity.
C.Provide comfort measures for sore muscles.
D.Assess the client for visual and auditory hallucinations. - Correct Answer-A
Rationale:
Rigidity, shuffling gait, pill-rolling hand movements, tremors, dyskinesia, and
masklike face are extrapyramidal side effects associated with Thorazine. It is most
important for the nurse to administer an anticholinergic such as Cogentin to
reverse these effects (A). The others (B, C, D) may be appropriate interventions but
are not as urgent as (A).
A nurse is interviewing a mother during a well-child visit. Which finding would
alert the nurse to continue further assessment of the infant?
A.Two-month-old who is unable to roll from back to abdomen
B.Ten-month-old who cannot sit without support
C.Nine-month-old who cries when his mother leaves the room
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, HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
D.Eight-month-old who has not yet begun to speak words - Correct Answer-B
Rationale:
As a developmental milestone, infants should sit unsupported by 8 months (B). The
milestone of rolling over is achieved at 5 to 6 months for most infants (A). Stranger
anxiety is common from 7 to 9 months (C). Speaking a few words is expected at
about 12 months (D).
Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to
the hospital with ulcerative colitis?
A.Administer stool softeners.
B.Place the client on fluid restriction.
C.Provide a low-residue diet.
D.Add a milk product to each meal. - Correct Answer-C
Rationale:
A low-residue diet (C) will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical
manifestations of ulcerative colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could
worsen the condition.
The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous
IV heparin infusion. The activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds.
Which action should the nurse take?
A.Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram.
B.Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM.
C.Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate.
D.Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate. - Correct
Answer-D
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, HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
Rationale:
An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin
should be stopped. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate (D). Increasing
the rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage (A). The infusion should be
stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) (B). Keeping the
infusion at the current rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage (C).
While assessing a client with recurring chest pain, the unit secretary notifies the
nurse that the client's health care provider is on the telephone. What action
should the nurse instruct the unit secretary to implement?
A.Transfer the call into the room of the client.
B.Instruct the secretary to explain reason for the call.
C.Ask another nurse to take the phone call.
D.Ask the health care provider to see the client on the unit. - Correct Answer-C
Rationale:
Another nurse should be asked to take the phone call (C), which allows the nurse
to stay at the bedside to complete the assessment of the client's chest pain. (A and
B) should not be done during an acute change in the client's condition. Requesting
the health care provider (D) to come to the unit is premature until the nurse
completes assessment of the client's status.
Which instruction(s) should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a
male client who has had a myocardial infarction and who has a new prescription
for nitroglycerin (NTG)? (Select all that apply.)
A.Keep the medication in your pocket so that it can be accessed quickly.
B.Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin.
C.Store the medication in its original container and protect it from light.
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, HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
D.Activate the emergency medical system after three doses of medication.
E.Do not use within 1 hour of taking sildenafil citrate (Viagra). - Correct Answer-
B,C
Rationale:
Emergency action should be taken if chest pain is not relieved after one
nitroglycerin tablet (B). The medication should be kept in the original container to
protect from light (C). Keeping the medication in the shirt pocket provides an
environment that is too warm (A). The newest guidelines recommend calling 911
after one nitroglycerin tablet if chest pain is not relieved (D). Nitroglycerin and
other nitrates should never be taken with Viagra (E).
The nurse prepares to administer 3 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH
insulin subcutaneously to a client with an elevated blood glucose level. Which
procedure is correct?
A.Using one syringe, first insert air into the regular vial and then insert air into the
NPH vial.
B.Using one syringe, add the regular insulin into the syringe and then add the NPH
insulin.
C.Avoid combining the two insulins because incompatibility could cause an
adverse reaction.
D.Administer the regular insulin subcutaneously and then give the NPH IV to
prevent a separate stick. - Correct Answer-B
Rationale:
The regular or "clear" insulin should be withdrawn into the syringe first, followed
by the NPH (B). Air should first be injected into the NPH vial and then air should be
inserted into the regular vial (A). NPH and regular insulin are compatible, and
combining will reduce the number of injections (C). The insulin is ordered
subcutaneously and NPH cannot be given IV (D).
4|Page
HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
LATEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED
A+ GUARANTEED PASS- ACE YOUR EXAM
A client who is prescribed chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) for schizophrenia
develops rigidity, a shuffling gait, and tremors. Which action by the nurse is most
important?
A.Administer a dose of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) PRN.
B.Determine if the client has increased photosensitivity.
C.Provide comfort measures for sore muscles.
D.Assess the client for visual and auditory hallucinations. - Correct Answer-A
Rationale:
Rigidity, shuffling gait, pill-rolling hand movements, tremors, dyskinesia, and
masklike face are extrapyramidal side effects associated with Thorazine. It is most
important for the nurse to administer an anticholinergic such as Cogentin to
reverse these effects (A). The others (B, C, D) may be appropriate interventions but
are not as urgent as (A).
A nurse is interviewing a mother during a well-child visit. Which finding would
alert the nurse to continue further assessment of the infant?
A.Two-month-old who is unable to roll from back to abdomen
B.Ten-month-old who cannot sit without support
C.Nine-month-old who cries when his mother leaves the room
1|Page
, HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
D.Eight-month-old who has not yet begun to speak words - Correct Answer-B
Rationale:
As a developmental milestone, infants should sit unsupported by 8 months (B). The
milestone of rolling over is achieved at 5 to 6 months for most infants (A). Stranger
anxiety is common from 7 to 9 months (C). Speaking a few words is expected at
about 12 months (D).
Which intervention should be included in the plan of care for a client admitted to
the hospital with ulcerative colitis?
A.Administer stool softeners.
B.Place the client on fluid restriction.
C.Provide a low-residue diet.
D.Add a milk product to each meal. - Correct Answer-C
Rationale:
A low-residue diet (C) will help decrease symptoms of diarrhea, which are clinical
manifestations of ulcerative colitis. (A, B, and D) are contraindicated and could
worsen the condition.
The nurse is caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis who is on a continuous
IV heparin infusion. The activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) is 120 seconds.
Which action should the nurse take?
A.Increase the rate of the heparin infusion using a nomogram.
B.Decrease the heparin infusion rate and give vitamin K IM.
C.Continue the heparin infusion at the current prescribed rate.
D.Stop the heparin drip and prepare to administer protamine sulfate. - Correct
Answer-D
2|Page
, HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
Rationale:
An aPTT more than 100 seconds is a critically high value; therefore, the heparin
should be stopped. The antidote for heparin is protamine sulfate (D). Increasing
the rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage (A). The infusion should be
stopped, and vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) (B). Keeping the
infusion at the current rate would increase the risk for hemorrhage (C).
While assessing a client with recurring chest pain, the unit secretary notifies the
nurse that the client's health care provider is on the telephone. What action
should the nurse instruct the unit secretary to implement?
A.Transfer the call into the room of the client.
B.Instruct the secretary to explain reason for the call.
C.Ask another nurse to take the phone call.
D.Ask the health care provider to see the client on the unit. - Correct Answer-C
Rationale:
Another nurse should be asked to take the phone call (C), which allows the nurse
to stay at the bedside to complete the assessment of the client's chest pain. (A and
B) should not be done during an acute change in the client's condition. Requesting
the health care provider (D) to come to the unit is premature until the nurse
completes assessment of the client's status.
Which instruction(s) should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a
male client who has had a myocardial infarction and who has a new prescription
for nitroglycerin (NTG)? (Select all that apply.)
A.Keep the medication in your pocket so that it can be accessed quickly.
B.Call 911 if chest pain is not relieved after one nitroglycerin.
C.Store the medication in its original container and protect it from light.
3|Page
, HESI EXIT COMPREHENSIVE EVOLVE PRACTICE EXAM PREP
D.Activate the emergency medical system after three doses of medication.
E.Do not use within 1 hour of taking sildenafil citrate (Viagra). - Correct Answer-
B,C
Rationale:
Emergency action should be taken if chest pain is not relieved after one
nitroglycerin tablet (B). The medication should be kept in the original container to
protect from light (C). Keeping the medication in the shirt pocket provides an
environment that is too warm (A). The newest guidelines recommend calling 911
after one nitroglycerin tablet if chest pain is not relieved (D). Nitroglycerin and
other nitrates should never be taken with Viagra (E).
The nurse prepares to administer 3 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH
insulin subcutaneously to a client with an elevated blood glucose level. Which
procedure is correct?
A.Using one syringe, first insert air into the regular vial and then insert air into the
NPH vial.
B.Using one syringe, add the regular insulin into the syringe and then add the NPH
insulin.
C.Avoid combining the two insulins because incompatibility could cause an
adverse reaction.
D.Administer the regular insulin subcutaneously and then give the NPH IV to
prevent a separate stick. - Correct Answer-B
Rationale:
The regular or "clear" insulin should be withdrawn into the syringe first, followed
by the NPH (B). Air should first be injected into the NPH vial and then air should be
inserted into the regular vial (A). NPH and regular insulin are compatible, and
combining will reduce the number of injections (C). The insulin is ordered
subcutaneously and NPH cannot be given IV (D).
4|Page
