RNSG 1128 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST FILE
Verified Practice Questions with Answers
Coping & Stress
Q1. According to Seyle's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS),
what occurs during the alarm stage?
A) Body returns to homeostasis
B) Mobilization of defenses, "fight or flight" response
C) Exhaustion of adaptive mechanisms
D) Localized inflammatory response
Answer-: B) Mobilization of defenses, "fight or flight" response
Explanation: The alarm stage involves hypothalamus activation,
sympathetic nervous system stimulation, and release of catecholamines and
cortisol .
Q2. Which are examples of maladaptive coping? (Select all that
apply)
A) Exercise
B) Substance abuse
C) Using support systems
D) Smoking
E) Meditation
Answer-: B, D (Substance abuse, Smoking)
Explanation: Maladaptive coping includes behaviors that do not support
adaptation, such as substance abuse and smoking. Exercise, support
systems, and meditation are adaptive coping strategies .
Q3. Negative outcomes of ineffective coping include:
A) Weight loss
,B) Successful relationships
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Increased work attendance
Answer-: C) Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation: Chronic stress and ineffective coping can lead to physical
consequences including peptic ulcer disease, depression, and hypertension .
Immunity
Q4. What are the attributes of normal immune function?
A) Elevated WBC count, fever, purulent drainage
B) Normal WBC and differential count, soft non-tender lymph nodes,
recognition of self vs foreign proteins
C) Positive bacterial cultures, enlarged lymph nodes
D) Autoantibody production
Answer-: B) Normal WBC and differential count, soft non-tender
lymph nodes, recognition of self vs foreign proteins
Explanation: Normal immune attributes include appropriate cell counts,
non-reactive lymph nodes, and proper self/non-self recognition .
Q5. A patient asks about the difference between active and
passive acquired immunity. Which response is correct?
A) "Active immunity is temporary, passive immunity is permanent"
B) "Active immunity develops from vaccination or having the disease and
lasts years; passive immunity is temporary from sources like breastfeeding"
C) "There is no difference"
D) "Passive immunity requires prior exposure to the antigen"
Answer-: B) "Active immunity develops from vaccination or
having the disease and lasts years; passive immunity is
temporary from sources like breastfeeding"
Explanation: Active immunity is produced by the person's own body and
lasts years/lifetime. Passive immunity is transferred from an external
source and is temporary .
Q6. The spleen's primary functions include:
A) Producing insulin
B) Filtering antigens from blood and removing old RBCs
,C) Digesting nutrients
D) Regulating body temperature
Answer-: B) Filtering antigens from blood and removing old
RBCs
Explanation: The spleen filters antigens and removes senescent red blood
cells via the red pulp .
Fluid & Electrolytes
Q7. Normal serum potassium level is:
A) 2.5-3.5 mEq/L
B) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
C) 5.0-6.5 mEq/L
D) 135-145 mEq/L
Answer-: B) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Explanation: Normal potassium range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. Potassium
imbalances primarily cause cardiac complications .
Q8. A patient with severe vomiting is at risk for which electrolyte
imbalance?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer-: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Vomiting causes loss of sodium, potassium, and chloride,
leading to hypokalemia .
Q9. Signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include:
A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Tetany and seizures
C) Dry mucous membranes
D) Hypotension and bradycardia
Answer-: A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
Explanation: Hyperkalemia affects membrane potentials, causing muscle
weakness and ECG changes including peaked T waves .
, Q10. A patient with heart failure should be taught to:
A) Weigh daily and report gain of 2-3 pounds in 24 hours
B) Increase fluid intake
C) Stop diuretics when feeling better
D) Restrict protein
Answer-: A) Weigh daily and report gain of 2-3 pounds in 24
hours
Explanation: Daily weights are essential for monitoring fluid status in
heart failure patients .
Perfusion & Gas Exchange
Q11. A 52-year-old woman is admitted with dyspnea, HR 112, BP
138/82, RR 22, O2 sat 94% on 2L NC. Which vital sign reflects
positive outcome of oxygen therapy?
A) Temperature 37°C
B) Radial pulse 112
C) Respiratory rate 24
D) Oxygen saturation 96%
Answer-: D) Oxygen saturation 96%
Explanation: Oxygen therapy directly increases oxygen saturation.
Temperature is unaffected, and oxygen should decrease HR and RR .
Q12. Which biomarker is most specific for diagnosing
myocardial infarction?
A) CK-MB
B) Troponin
C) Myoglobin
D) C-reactive protein
Answer-: B) Troponin
Explanation: Troponin has the highest sensitivity and specificity for MI
diagnosis .
Q13. A patient with fever of 104°F (40°C) is at risk for dyspnea
because:
A) Blood glucose stores are depleted
B) Fever increases metabolic demands and oxygen need
ANSWERS LATEST FILE
Verified Practice Questions with Answers
Coping & Stress
Q1. According to Seyle's General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS),
what occurs during the alarm stage?
A) Body returns to homeostasis
B) Mobilization of defenses, "fight or flight" response
C) Exhaustion of adaptive mechanisms
D) Localized inflammatory response
Answer-: B) Mobilization of defenses, "fight or flight" response
Explanation: The alarm stage involves hypothalamus activation,
sympathetic nervous system stimulation, and release of catecholamines and
cortisol .
Q2. Which are examples of maladaptive coping? (Select all that
apply)
A) Exercise
B) Substance abuse
C) Using support systems
D) Smoking
E) Meditation
Answer-: B, D (Substance abuse, Smoking)
Explanation: Maladaptive coping includes behaviors that do not support
adaptation, such as substance abuse and smoking. Exercise, support
systems, and meditation are adaptive coping strategies .
Q3. Negative outcomes of ineffective coping include:
A) Weight loss
,B) Successful relationships
C) Peptic ulcer disease
D) Increased work attendance
Answer-: C) Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation: Chronic stress and ineffective coping can lead to physical
consequences including peptic ulcer disease, depression, and hypertension .
Immunity
Q4. What are the attributes of normal immune function?
A) Elevated WBC count, fever, purulent drainage
B) Normal WBC and differential count, soft non-tender lymph nodes,
recognition of self vs foreign proteins
C) Positive bacterial cultures, enlarged lymph nodes
D) Autoantibody production
Answer-: B) Normal WBC and differential count, soft non-tender
lymph nodes, recognition of self vs foreign proteins
Explanation: Normal immune attributes include appropriate cell counts,
non-reactive lymph nodes, and proper self/non-self recognition .
Q5. A patient asks about the difference between active and
passive acquired immunity. Which response is correct?
A) "Active immunity is temporary, passive immunity is permanent"
B) "Active immunity develops from vaccination or having the disease and
lasts years; passive immunity is temporary from sources like breastfeeding"
C) "There is no difference"
D) "Passive immunity requires prior exposure to the antigen"
Answer-: B) "Active immunity develops from vaccination or
having the disease and lasts years; passive immunity is
temporary from sources like breastfeeding"
Explanation: Active immunity is produced by the person's own body and
lasts years/lifetime. Passive immunity is transferred from an external
source and is temporary .
Q6. The spleen's primary functions include:
A) Producing insulin
B) Filtering antigens from blood and removing old RBCs
,C) Digesting nutrients
D) Regulating body temperature
Answer-: B) Filtering antigens from blood and removing old
RBCs
Explanation: The spleen filters antigens and removes senescent red blood
cells via the red pulp .
Fluid & Electrolytes
Q7. Normal serum potassium level is:
A) 2.5-3.5 mEq/L
B) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
C) 5.0-6.5 mEq/L
D) 135-145 mEq/L
Answer-: B) 3.5-5.0 mEq/L
Explanation: Normal potassium range is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. Potassium
imbalances primarily cause cardiac complications .
Q8. A patient with severe vomiting is at risk for which electrolyte
imbalance?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypermagnesemia
Answer-: B) Hypokalemia
Explanation: Vomiting causes loss of sodium, potassium, and chloride,
leading to hypokalemia .
Q9. Signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia include:
A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
B) Tetany and seizures
C) Dry mucous membranes
D) Hypotension and bradycardia
Answer-: A) Muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias
Explanation: Hyperkalemia affects membrane potentials, causing muscle
weakness and ECG changes including peaked T waves .
, Q10. A patient with heart failure should be taught to:
A) Weigh daily and report gain of 2-3 pounds in 24 hours
B) Increase fluid intake
C) Stop diuretics when feeling better
D) Restrict protein
Answer-: A) Weigh daily and report gain of 2-3 pounds in 24
hours
Explanation: Daily weights are essential for monitoring fluid status in
heart failure patients .
Perfusion & Gas Exchange
Q11. A 52-year-old woman is admitted with dyspnea, HR 112, BP
138/82, RR 22, O2 sat 94% on 2L NC. Which vital sign reflects
positive outcome of oxygen therapy?
A) Temperature 37°C
B) Radial pulse 112
C) Respiratory rate 24
D) Oxygen saturation 96%
Answer-: D) Oxygen saturation 96%
Explanation: Oxygen therapy directly increases oxygen saturation.
Temperature is unaffected, and oxygen should decrease HR and RR .
Q12. Which biomarker is most specific for diagnosing
myocardial infarction?
A) CK-MB
B) Troponin
C) Myoglobin
D) C-reactive protein
Answer-: B) Troponin
Explanation: Troponin has the highest sensitivity and specificity for MI
diagnosis .
Q13. A patient with fever of 104°F (40°C) is at risk for dyspnea
because:
A) Blood glucose stores are depleted
B) Fever increases metabolic demands and oxygen need
