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Nur603 cea practice Exam QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% RATED CORRECT WITH 100% SURE PASS|GRADED A+

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Nur603 cea practice Exam QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100% RATED CORRECT WITH 100% SURE PASS|GRADED A+

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Nur603 Cea Practice E
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Nur603 cea practice E

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Nur603 cea practice Exam
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
RATED CORRECT WITH 100% SURE
PASS|GRADED A+
An example of secondary prevention for a diagnosis of coronary artery disease includes which of the
following?



Controlling hypertension



Coronary artery bypass grafting



Practicing yoga and meditation to reduce stress



LDL decreasing from 120 to 98 with healthy diet - CORRECT ANSWERS Coronary artery
bypass grafting



CABG represents the only guaranteed evidence of fixing patients who already have coronary artery
disease. The rest remain as primary prevention strategies.



Your patient presents with bradycardia, severe nausea, and substernal pain. STEMI was identified on the
EKG. Which region of the heart is most likely involved?



Lateral Wall



Anterior Wall

,Inferior Wall



Septal Wall - CORRECT ANSWERS Inferior Wall



The inferior wall, fed by the right coronary artery is commonly associated with these symptoms.
Remember right equals rate as it is the blood supply for the SA and AV nodes in most patients.
Dyspepsia is common in RCA territory injury due to vagal stimulation not typical of other areas.



As the nurse practitioner working in a primary care clinic, you have been notified from a hospitalist that
your long-term patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an
ejection fraction of 40% two years ago who is also not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed
with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to
the left anterior descending artery. As the patient's medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care for their heart failure after an
acute MI?



Ordering a new transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%



Ordering aspirin and clopidogrel for 3 months at discharge



Ordering a new transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 45%



Ordering a Holter monitor for 7 days post-discharge - CORRECT ANSWERS Ordering a new
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%



Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI. A Holter monitor does not
provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented. The patient should have a protective
mechanism such as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients
are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating
an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance

,companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their
repeat echo in 2-3 months.



A patient is being followed for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He also has a diagnosis of
polycythemia vera and has regular phlebotomies for management. Which of the following statements
about this patient is correct?



He should avoid dietary iron supplements



The phlebotomies will increase his blood pressure



He should increase dietary iron supplements



The phlebotomies will improve his glycosylated hemoglobin levels - CORRECT ANSWERS He
should avoid dietary iron supplements



A 60-year-old man presents with recurrent kidney stones, abdominal pain, and bone pain. Laboratory
results show elevated serum calcium and low phosphate levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?



Hypercalcemia of malignancy



Hypoparathyroidism



Osteoporosis



Hyperparathyroidism - CORRECT ANSWERS Hyperparathyroidism

, Parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium (reducing bony calcium concentration in the process) and
explains why a patient is experiencing this clinical mileu.



A 40-year-old female presents with abnormal thyroid labs. Her labs show: TSH 0.25 (0.4-5.69), Free T4
1.5 (0.5-1.1), TSI antibody positive. You counsel her that:



She likely has a multinodular toxic goiter



She likely has autoimmune hypothyroidism and will need thyroid hormone replacement



Plan to monitor her for S&S and repeat labs in 6-8 weeks



She likely has autoimmune hyperthyroidism, and a thyroid uptake scan and US may be helpful -
CORRECT ANSWERS She likely has autoimmune hyperthyroidism, and a thyroid uptake scan
and US may be helpful




Positive TSI and TRAB antibodies are consistent with Graves/hyperthyroidism. Positive TPO antibodies
are consistent with Hashimoto's/hypothyroidism.



A 27-year-old woman presents with frequent headaches, galactorrhea, and amenorrhea. MRI of the
brain reveals a pituitary adenoma. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?



Dopamine agonists



Surgery



Radiation therapy

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