QUICKBOOKS (INTUIT) CERTIFICATION EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 100%
VERIFIED 2025/2026
Question 1
You've been hired by a company that started in 1911. They've never used QuickBooks. During
the EasyStep Interview, what "Start Date" should you use?
A) January 1, 1911
B) The date the company first opened its doors
C) The date you want to begin tracking the company's finances in QuickBooks
D) The current date
E) The last day of the current fiscal year
Correct Answer: C) The date you want to begin tracking the company's finances in
QuickBooks
Rationale: The start date in QuickBooks determines the point at which you begin entering
historical data and live transactions. It does not have to be the actual founding date of the
company.
Question 2
When setting up a new company through the EasyStep Interview, some company information is
optional and some is absolutely required. Which of the following pieces of information does
QuickBooks require you to enter?
A) Tax ID
B) Company name
C) Company address
D) Phone number
E) Primary contact person
Correct Answer: B) Company name
Rationale: While address and tax ID are important for forms, QuickBooks requires the
Company Name to create the data file and identify the entity.
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a backup option in QuickBooks?
A) Back up to a local hard drive
B) Back up to a flash drive
C) Back up to an offsite cloud service
D) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service subscriptions intact
E) Schedule automatic backups
Correct Answer: D) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service
subscriptions intact
Rationale: Backup options are intended to save data. Removing transactions is a function of
the "Clean Up Company Data" or "Condense" utility, not a backup method.
Question 4
If you choose to "Remove Transactions as of a specific date" from the "Clean Up Company
, 2
Data" window, what does QuickBooks do?
A) Deletes the entire company file
B) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service subscriptions intact
C) Archives the transactions in a separate Excel file
D) Reverses all transactions as journal entries
E) Deletes the Chart of Accounts
Correct Answer: B) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service
subscriptions intact
Rationale: This utility is designed to reduce the size of a large company file by removing old
transactional data while preserving the structural lists and settings.
Question 5
What do the diamonds mean on certain lists (for example, the diamonds to the left of each
Customer:Job)?
A) The item is currently active
B) The item has a balance of zero
C) You can click on the diamond and move the list entry to a different location on the list
D) The entry is a sub-account
E) The entry is synchronized with an online account
Correct Answer: C) You can click on the diamond and move the list entry to a different
location on the list
Rationale: The diamond icons are "drag and drop" handles that allow the user to reorder
list items or change the hierarchy of sub-items.
Question 6
What is the maximum number of names that can be included on the Names lists in QuickBooks
Pro or Premier?
A) 10,000
B) 14,500
C) 25,000
D) 50,000
E) Unlimited
Correct Answer: B) 14,500
Rationale: QuickBooks Pro and Premier have a limit of 14,500 combined entries in the
Names list (Customers, Vendors, Employees, and Other Names). The Enterprise version
allows significantly more.
Question 7
What item type should you use for inventory that you assemble from other items and then sell?
A) Non-inventory Part
B) Service
, 3
C) Inventory Part
D) Inventory Assembly
E) Group
Correct Answer: D) Inventory Assembly
Rationale: Inventory Assembly items allow you to track the Bill of Materials and the
finished product produced from individual components.
Question 8
Which of the following statements is true concerning items?
A) To create an invoice, you must use an item
B) Items allow you to track your sales in more detail without cluttering your Chart of Accounts
C) You can use one item to represent different services or goods
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: Items act as the bridge between the forms (Invoices) and the General Ledger
(Chart of Accounts), providing detail and flexibility without needing a separate account for
every product sold.
Question 9
When should you create an invoice in QuickBooks?
A) When a customer pays cash at the time of sale
B) When you want to record a vendor bill
C) When a customer purchases goods or services but does not pay you at the time of the sale
D) When you receive a payment for a previous sale
E) When you are providing an estimate for a job
Correct Answer: C) When a customer purchases goods or services but does not pay you at
the time of the sale
Rationale: An invoice records a sale on account, creating a balance in Accounts Receivable.
Question 10
When should you use a Sales Receipt in QuickBooks?
A) To record a customer payment at the time of sale
B) To bill a customer for work to be done in the future
C) To record a payment for an outstanding invoice
D) To track bills you owe to vendors
E) When you provide a refund to a vendor
Correct Answer: A) To record a customer payment at the time of sale
Rationale: A Sales Receipt is used for "point of sale" transactions where payment is
received immediately, bypassing Accounts Receivable.
, 4
Question 11
How do you track accounts payable in QuickBooks?
A) Write a check immediately
B) Enter a bill, and then use the Pay Bills window
C) Use a Sales Receipt
D) Create a Journal Entry to an expense account
E) Track it in a separate Excel spreadsheet
Correct Answer: B) Enter a bill, and then use the Pay Bills window
Rationale: This two-step process ensures that the expense is recorded when the bill is
received and the liability is cleared when the check is issued.
Question 12
What transaction/form do you begin with to enter a vendor credit?
A) Sales Receipt
B) Credit Memo
C) Enter Bill
D) Pay Bills
E) Vendor List
Correct Answer: C) Enter Bill
Rationale: In the "Enter Bills" window, you can select the "Credit" radio button to record a
credit received from a vendor.
Question 13
When printing paychecks, what is the preferred check style to give an employee a paystub?
A) Standard
B) Wallet
C) Voucher
D) Legal
E) Three-per-page
Correct Answer: C) Voucher
Rationale: Voucher checks are 8.5" x 11" sheets that include the check and two stubs, one
for the employee and one for the employer's records.
Question 14
When setting up a new employee, what is important about the Payroll Info tab?
A) It contains the employee's home address
B) It tracks the employee's emergency contact
C) Whatever you enter/see in this window affects each paycheck, unless you change the
information on the paycheck itself
D) It is used to record the employee's hire date
E) It is where you record the employee's social security number
VERIFIED 2025/2026
Question 1
You've been hired by a company that started in 1911. They've never used QuickBooks. During
the EasyStep Interview, what "Start Date" should you use?
A) January 1, 1911
B) The date the company first opened its doors
C) The date you want to begin tracking the company's finances in QuickBooks
D) The current date
E) The last day of the current fiscal year
Correct Answer: C) The date you want to begin tracking the company's finances in
QuickBooks
Rationale: The start date in QuickBooks determines the point at which you begin entering
historical data and live transactions. It does not have to be the actual founding date of the
company.
Question 2
When setting up a new company through the EasyStep Interview, some company information is
optional and some is absolutely required. Which of the following pieces of information does
QuickBooks require you to enter?
A) Tax ID
B) Company name
C) Company address
D) Phone number
E) Primary contact person
Correct Answer: B) Company name
Rationale: While address and tax ID are important for forms, QuickBooks requires the
Company Name to create the data file and identify the entity.
Question 3
Which of the following is NOT a backup option in QuickBooks?
A) Back up to a local hard drive
B) Back up to a flash drive
C) Back up to an offsite cloud service
D) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service subscriptions intact
E) Schedule automatic backups
Correct Answer: D) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service
subscriptions intact
Rationale: Backup options are intended to save data. Removing transactions is a function of
the "Clean Up Company Data" or "Condense" utility, not a backup method.
Question 4
If you choose to "Remove Transactions as of a specific date" from the "Clean Up Company
, 2
Data" window, what does QuickBooks do?
A) Deletes the entire company file
B) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service subscriptions intact
C) Archives the transactions in a separate Excel file
D) Reverses all transactions as journal entries
E) Deletes the Chart of Accounts
Correct Answer: B) Removes all transactions while leaving lists, preferences, and service
subscriptions intact
Rationale: This utility is designed to reduce the size of a large company file by removing old
transactional data while preserving the structural lists and settings.
Question 5
What do the diamonds mean on certain lists (for example, the diamonds to the left of each
Customer:Job)?
A) The item is currently active
B) The item has a balance of zero
C) You can click on the diamond and move the list entry to a different location on the list
D) The entry is a sub-account
E) The entry is synchronized with an online account
Correct Answer: C) You can click on the diamond and move the list entry to a different
location on the list
Rationale: The diamond icons are "drag and drop" handles that allow the user to reorder
list items or change the hierarchy of sub-items.
Question 6
What is the maximum number of names that can be included on the Names lists in QuickBooks
Pro or Premier?
A) 10,000
B) 14,500
C) 25,000
D) 50,000
E) Unlimited
Correct Answer: B) 14,500
Rationale: QuickBooks Pro and Premier have a limit of 14,500 combined entries in the
Names list (Customers, Vendors, Employees, and Other Names). The Enterprise version
allows significantly more.
Question 7
What item type should you use for inventory that you assemble from other items and then sell?
A) Non-inventory Part
B) Service
, 3
C) Inventory Part
D) Inventory Assembly
E) Group
Correct Answer: D) Inventory Assembly
Rationale: Inventory Assembly items allow you to track the Bill of Materials and the
finished product produced from individual components.
Question 8
Which of the following statements is true concerning items?
A) To create an invoice, you must use an item
B) Items allow you to track your sales in more detail without cluttering your Chart of Accounts
C) You can use one item to represent different services or goods
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Rationale: Items act as the bridge between the forms (Invoices) and the General Ledger
(Chart of Accounts), providing detail and flexibility without needing a separate account for
every product sold.
Question 9
When should you create an invoice in QuickBooks?
A) When a customer pays cash at the time of sale
B) When you want to record a vendor bill
C) When a customer purchases goods or services but does not pay you at the time of the sale
D) When you receive a payment for a previous sale
E) When you are providing an estimate for a job
Correct Answer: C) When a customer purchases goods or services but does not pay you at
the time of the sale
Rationale: An invoice records a sale on account, creating a balance in Accounts Receivable.
Question 10
When should you use a Sales Receipt in QuickBooks?
A) To record a customer payment at the time of sale
B) To bill a customer for work to be done in the future
C) To record a payment for an outstanding invoice
D) To track bills you owe to vendors
E) When you provide a refund to a vendor
Correct Answer: A) To record a customer payment at the time of sale
Rationale: A Sales Receipt is used for "point of sale" transactions where payment is
received immediately, bypassing Accounts Receivable.
, 4
Question 11
How do you track accounts payable in QuickBooks?
A) Write a check immediately
B) Enter a bill, and then use the Pay Bills window
C) Use a Sales Receipt
D) Create a Journal Entry to an expense account
E) Track it in a separate Excel spreadsheet
Correct Answer: B) Enter a bill, and then use the Pay Bills window
Rationale: This two-step process ensures that the expense is recorded when the bill is
received and the liability is cleared when the check is issued.
Question 12
What transaction/form do you begin with to enter a vendor credit?
A) Sales Receipt
B) Credit Memo
C) Enter Bill
D) Pay Bills
E) Vendor List
Correct Answer: C) Enter Bill
Rationale: In the "Enter Bills" window, you can select the "Credit" radio button to record a
credit received from a vendor.
Question 13
When printing paychecks, what is the preferred check style to give an employee a paystub?
A) Standard
B) Wallet
C) Voucher
D) Legal
E) Three-per-page
Correct Answer: C) Voucher
Rationale: Voucher checks are 8.5" x 11" sheets that include the check and two stubs, one
for the employee and one for the employer's records.
Question 14
When setting up a new employee, what is important about the Payroll Info tab?
A) It contains the employee's home address
B) It tracks the employee's emergency contact
C) Whatever you enter/see in this window affects each paycheck, unless you change the
information on the paycheck itself
D) It is used to record the employee's hire date
E) It is where you record the employee's social security number
