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EOR exam Women's health EXAM (2026) UPDATE Verified Questions And Answers | With 100% Correct Answers graded A+ Guaranteed Success!!

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EOR exam Women's health EXAM (2026) UPDATE Verified Questions And Answers | With 100% Correct Answers graded A+ Guaranteed Success!!

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EOR exam Women's health EXAM (2026) UPDATE
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Terms in this set (119)



The fundus is at the umbilicus at 20
approximately how many weeks?


At how many weeks is the test for 24-28
gestational diabetes performed


At what point during a normal 28 weeks
pregnancy should exams go from
every 4 weeks to every 3 weeks?


A women whose LMP was on June 3/13
6th will have what estimated due
date according to Nägele's rule


A blueish cervix seen at early Chadwick's
pregnancy is known as whose sign?


When can chronic villus sampling be 10-12 weeks
performed?

,What is quickening and when does it When mother first starts feeling movement for first
occur? time. Typically around 20 weeks, may be earlier for
multiparous women.


abnormal placenta development Placenta Previa
covering the cervix?


The umbilical vein carries _____ blood? Oxygenated


Which of the following Lab studies b. low estradiol, high fsh and lh
would be seen in menopause-
a. high estradiol, low fsh and LH
b. low estradiol, high fsh and lh
c. high estradiol, high fsh and lh
d. low estradiol, low fsh and lh


36 year old woman presents with Aspiration of dominant mass
noted mass in right breast that has
remained unchanged through three
menstrual cycles. She has a history of
smaller benign cystic disease. What
is the best diagnostic step after an
initial ultrasound?


24 year old female presents with PCOS
complaint of inability to get pregnant
over the last year and is concerened
about the growth of dark hair along
her chin and jawline. Her last
menstrual period was 6 months ago,
she is overweight. From the
description what is the most likely
etiology of the patient's complaint-

,A hard, immobile, irregularly shaped breast cancer
solitary mass, with positive LAD is
indicative of?


Which of the following best A. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent and treat
describes the purpose of eclamptic seizures. Magnesium sulfate is not
intravenous magnesium sulfate in sufficient to treat
patients with preeclampsia? hypertension, therefore antihypertensives must be
A. Prevention of convulsions added. Magnesium sulfate is excreted solely from
B. Prevention of HELLP syndrome the
C. Lowering of blood pressure kidneys and urine output must be preserved to
D. Reversal of proteinuria prevent accumulation of the drug. Magnesium
sulfate does
nothing to prevent HELLP syndrome.


A 25 year-old female presents for a (u) A. MRI's of the breast are done in patients with
routine gynecological examination. prior breast cancer or who have BRCA 1 or 2
You palpate a 2 cm breast mass in positivity.
her right (u) B. Excisional biopsy is not indicated without
breast. Her menstrual period was last differentiation of lesion by ultrasound.
week. She has no family history of CORRECT: C. In a 25 year-old an ultrasound is the
breast cancer. What is the modality best choice because of the density of the breast
of tissue in young
choice to further evaluate her breast women.
mass? (u) D. Mammographies are not recommended in
A. Magnetic resonance imaging women prior to the age of 35 without family history
(MRI) of breast
B. Excisional biopsy cancer or BRCA positive.
C. Ultrasound
D. Mammography

, A 26 year-old woman requests (u) A. The classic presentation of herpes is a painful
screening after her boyfriend was vesicle.
treated for a sexually transmitted CORRECT: B. The primary lesion of syphilis
infection recently. presents as a painless ulcer or chancre. Secondary
On examination you find a painless syphilis presents with a
vulvar ulcer. Which of the following is skin rash lymphadenopathy and mucocutaneous
the most likely diagnosis? lesions.
A. Herpes (u) C. Chancroid presents with a painful genital
B. Syphilis ulcer and tender suppurative inguinal adenopathy.
C. Chancroid (u) D. Granuloma inguinale presents with raised, red
D. Granuloma inguinale lesions that bleed easily.


A 16 year-old nulliparous acutely ill D. This patient has pelvic inflammatory disease and
female presents with bilateral lower most likely a tubo-ovarian abscess. It is
abdominal pain. She has a recommended that
temperature of the patient be hospitalized and treated with high-
100.4 degrees F and on examination dose IV antibiotic therapy. For patients with tubo-
has a tender, enlarged left adnexa. ovarian
Cervical culture is positive for abscesses, surgical drainage is often necessary.
Chlamydia.
Ultrasound reveals a complex tubular
structure in the left adnexal area.
What is the recommended
treatment?
A. Outpatient treatment with IM
ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
B. Oral doxycycline
C. IM procaine penicillin
D. Hospitalization with parenteral
doxycycline and cefoxitin

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