BIOLOGY PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS -
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1. The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to:
A. Transport lipids to tissues
B. Transport oxygen from lungs to tissues
C. Maintain blood pH by buffering proteins
D. Produce immune responses
Rationale: Hemoglobin binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it in tissues,
facilitating cellular respiration.
2. During mitosis, which phase is characterized by the alignment of
chromosomes at the cell equator?
A. Prophase
B. Telophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
Rationale: In metaphase, chromosomes align at the metaphase plate before
being separated.
3. A patient presents with jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. Which liver
function is most likely impaired?
A. Glycogen storage
B. Detoxification of ammonia
C. Bile excretion
D. Vitamin D synthesis
, Rationale: Jaundice and pale stools indicate cholestasis or impaired bile
excretion.
4. Which of the following best describes the function of the nephron in the
kidney?
A. Transport of oxygen
B. Filtration, reabsorption, and secretion to form urine
C. Production of red blood cells
D. Regulation of hormones only
Rationale: Nephrons filter blood, reabsorb needed substances, and secrete
waste to form urine.
5. Which macronutrient yields the most energy per gram?
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fats
D. Vitamins
Rationale: Fats provide approximately 9 kcal/g, whereas carbohydrates and
proteins provide 4 kcal/g.
6. During bacterial infection, which white blood cell type is first to respond?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
Rationale: Neutrophils are the primary responders to bacterial infections
and perform phagocytosis.
7. Which of the following best illustrates negative feedback in the human
body?
A. Increase in oxytocin during labor contractions
, B. Secretion of insulin in response to high blood glucose
C. Platelet aggregation during bleeding
D. Fever development during infection
Rationale: Negative feedback counteracts deviations; insulin lowers blood
glucose to maintain homeostasis.
8. A patient presents with muscle weakness, ptosis, and difficulty swallowing.
Which neuromuscular disorder is most likely?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Rationale: Myasthenia gravis involves autoimmune destruction of
acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
9. The central dogma of molecular biology describes which process?
A. DNA → Lipids → Proteins
B. RNA → DNA → Proteins
C. DNA → RNA → Proteins
D. Proteins → RNA → DNA
Rationale: Genetic information flows from DNA to RNA to protein synthesis.
10.Which structure is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Pituitary gland
C. Choroid plexus
D. Pineal gland
Rationale: The choroid plexus in the ventricles produces CSF, which
cushions and nourishes the brain.
, 11.In humans, the pacemaker of the heart is located in the:
A. AV node
B. Bundle of His
C. Purkinje fibers
D. SA node
Rationale: The sinoatrial (SA) node initiates electrical impulses, regulating
heart rate.
12.Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding DNA during replication?
A. Ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. Helicase
D. Topoisomerase
Rationale: Helicase breaks hydrogen bonds between base pairs to separate
DNA strands.
13.During aerobic respiration, the majority of ATP is produced in the:
A. Cytoplasm
B. Mitochondrial inner membrane (electron transport chain)
C. Nucleus
D. Lysosome
Rationale: Oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria generates the
majority of ATP.
14.A 25-year-old patient has a BMI of 32. Which condition is most likely?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Obesity
D. Malnutrition
Rationale: BMI ≥30 indicates obesity according to WHO standards.