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ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM 2026: 200+ VERIFIED QUESTIONS & RATIONALES | LATEST & COMPLETE GUIDE | GRADED A+

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Crush your ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam with the ultimate 2026 study resource! This guide is specifically engineered to help nursing students achieve Level 3 proficiency, featuring actual-style questions and comprehensive rationales updated for the latest ATI 2026 blueprint. What’s Inside to Guarantee Your Success: Antepartum Care: Mastery of Naegele’s Rule, GTPAL, and diagnostic tests (NST, CST, BPP). Intrapartum Priorities: Critical heart rate interpretations (VEAL CHOP), stages of labor, and pain management. Postpartum & Newborn Care: Detailed interventions for postpartum hemorrhage, breastfeeding, and APGAR scoring. Pharmacology: High-yield coverage of Oxytocin, Magnesium Sulfate (toxicity signs), and Terbutaline. Each question is paired with a detailed evidence-based rationale, focusing on the Nursing Process and Safety/Prioritization (ABCs/Maslow's). Stop guessing and start studying the exact concepts required to bridge the gap between your textbook and the high-stakes proctored environment!

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2026 GRADED A+ EXAM



Ati RN Maternal Proctored Exam ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
WELL REVISED ANSWERS - LATEST AND COMPLETE
UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 2026


A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a
prescription for a nonstress test (NST). Which of the following pieces of
information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) "You will need to be NPO for 4 hours prior to the test."
B) "You will press a button when you feel the baby move." ✅
C) "This test will determine if the baby's lungs are mature."
D) "A medication will be given to stimulate contractions."
Answer: B
Rationale: An NST is non-invasive. The client presses a button to correlate fetal
movement with fetal heart rate accelerations. NPO status is not required, and no
contractions are induced (that would be a Contraction Stress Test).

A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum. Which of the
following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
A) A gush of lochia rubra when the client stands up.
B) A firm fundus that is deviated to the right of the midline. ✅
C) Perineal discomfort rated as 3 on a 1-10 scale.
D) A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
Answer: B
Rationale: A fundus deviated to the right indicates a distended bladder. A full
bladder prevents uterine contraction, which is the leading cause of uterine atony
and postpartum hemorrhage.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving Magnesium Sulfate for
preeclampsia. Which of the following findings is an indication of
magnesium toxicity?
A) Hyperreflexia (+4 deep tendon reflexes)
B) Respiratory rate of 10/min. ✅
C) Increased urinary output.
D) Blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg.

,2026 GRADED A+ EXAM

Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a CNS depressant. Signs of toxicity include
bradypnea (<12/min), absent deep tendon reflexes, and decreased urine output
(<30 mL/hr).

A nurse is assessing a newborn 15 minutes after birth. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet.
B) Nasal flaring and chest retractions. ✅
C) Heart rate of 154/min.
D) Overlapping cranial sutures.
Answer: B
Rationale: Nasal flaring, grunting, and retractions are signs of respiratory
distress syndrome (RDS) and require immediate intervention. Acrocyanosis is a
normal finding in the first 24-48 hours.

A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation who reports sudden,
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Perform a sterile vaginal exam to check dilation.
B) Initiate continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. ✅
C) Administer oxytocin to induce labor.
D) Encourage the client to walk to the bathroom.
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden painless bright red bleeding is indicative of Placenta Previa.
Vaginal exams are strictly contraindicated as they can cause massive
hemorrhage. Monitoring fetal well-being is the priority.

A nurse is teaching a client who is Rh-negative about Rho(D) immune
globulin. In which of the following situations should the nurse expect to
administer Rhogam?
A) At 12 weeks of gestation for every Rh-negative client.
B) At 28 weeks of gestation and within 72 hours of delivery of an Rh-
positive infant. ✅
C) Only if the client has a positive Indirect Coombs test.
D) To an Rh-positive mother who delivers an Rh-negative infant.
Answer: B
Rationale: Rhogam is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent isoimmunization.

,2026 GRADED A+ EXAM

If the mother already has a positive Coombs test, she is already sensitized and
Rhogam is no longer effective.

A nurse is caring for a client in the first stage of labor who has an umbilical
cord prolapse. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
A) Cover the cord with dry sterile gauze.
B) Apply upward internal pressure to the fetal presenting part. ✅
C) Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
D) Perform a Leopold maneuver.
Answer: B
Rationale: The priority is to relieve pressure on the cord to maintain fetal
oxygenation. The nurse should use a sterile gloved hand to push the head or
breech off the cord until a C-section is performed.

A nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hours postpartum. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Fundus at the level of the umbilicus. ✅
B) Lochia alba.
C) Breasts are engorged and painful.
D) Bradycardia of 40/min.
Answer: A
Rationale: At 12 hours postpartum, the fundus should be at the level of the
umbilicus. Lochia rubra is expected for the first 3 days. Engorgement typically
occurs on day 3-5.

A nurse is teaching a client about breastfeeding. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I should wash my nipples with soap before every feeding."
B) "I will know the baby is getting enough milk if there are 6 to 8 wet
diapers a day." ✅
C) "I should wake my baby every 6 hours to feed."
D) "I will use a pacifier if the baby seems hungry between feedings."
Answer: B
Rationale: Wet diaper count is the most reliable indicator of adequate intake in
the first week. Soap should be avoided as it dries out the nipples.

A nurse is assessing a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has severe
preeclampsia. Which of the following findings is the priority to report?

, 2026 GRADED A+ EXAM

A) 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
B) Blurred vision and epigastric pain. ✅
C) 1+ protein in the urine.
D) Platelet count of 150,000/mm³.
Answer: B
Rationale: Blurred vision (cerebral edema) and epigastric pain (liver
involvement) are "red flag" signs that a seizure (Eclampsia) or HELLP syndrome
is imminent.

A nurse is preparing to administer Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client
with postpartum hemorrhage. Which of the following is a contraindication
to this medication?
A) Asthma.
B) Hypertension (160/110 mm Hg). ✅
C) Migraine headaches.
D) Type 2 Diabetes.
Answer: B
Rationale: Methergine is a potent vasoconstrictor. It is contraindicated in clients
with hypertension or preeclampsia because it can cause a hypertensive crisis or
stroke.

A nurse is caring for a newborn immediately following birth. Which of the
following is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer Vitamin K.
B) Dry the newborn and place them skin-to-skin. ✅
C) Perform the New Ballard Score.
D) Apply erythromycin ophthalmic ointment.
Answer: B
Rationale: Thermoregulation is the priority. Newborns lose heat rapidly via
evaporation. Drying and skin-to-skin contact prevent cold stress.

A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which finding should the
nurse expect?
A) Respiratory rate of 40/min. ✅
B) Blood glucose of 30 mg/dL.
C) Generalized jaundice.
D) Apical pulse of 90/min.

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