ABNORMAL MIDWIFERY REVISION QUESTIONS 2026
PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of
a) Morning sickness
b) Multiple gestation
c) Hyperemesis gravidarum
d) Hypertensive disorders
2. The complication that is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum is
a) Wernikle’s encephalopathy
b) Sheehan’s syndrome
c) Maurice encephalitis
d) Antepartum bleeding
3. Specific management of moderate pre- eclampsia involves
a) Admission at first contact
b) Managing as an outpatient case
c) Admission in the intensive care unit
d) Encouraging plenty of oral fluids
4. Arched back and tightly clenched teeth, are among the features of which stage of eclampsia:-
a) Clonic
b) Tonic
c) Premonitory
d) Coma
5. Causes of polyhydramnious includes :-
a) Congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma
b) Severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy
c) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anaemia
d) Rhesus D isoimmunisation and post datism
6. Some of the neonatal complications of eclampsia are:-
a) Cerebral haemorrhage and pneumonia
b) Severe asphyxia and prematurity
c) Fractures and soft tissue trauma
d) Respiratory distress and hypoglycaemia
1
,Indicate whether True or False to answer questions 7 & 8.
7. i) Prenatal tuberculosis always leads to neonatal tuberculosis.
ii. Clinical features of tuberculosis prenatally are anaemia, intrauterine fetal death
and glycosuria among others.
8. i. Congenital malformations are common in Monozygotic twinning .
ii. Dichorionicity only occurs in diazygotic twinning.
9. Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest and generalized oedema are among the features of:-
a) Folate deficiency
b) Very severe anaemia
c) Mild iron deficiency
d) Severe anaemia
10. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
a) Intraplacental haemorrhage
b) Intrapartum haemorrhage
c) Extraplacental haemorrhage
d) Preterm haemorrhage
11. Chemical diabetes mellitus is a classification based on
a) Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results
b) Presence of symptoms and abnormal specific laboratory results
c) Previous congenital abnormalities and unexplained stillbirth
d) Previous birth of a baby weighing >4.3kg and spontaneous abortion
12. Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of
a) Iron and thiamine
b) Iron and folic acid
c) Folic acid and thiamine
d) Liver enzymes and iron
13. A MAJOR predisposing factor to cardiac disease in pregnancy includes
a) Rheumatic heart disease
b) Notable peripheral oedema
c) Easy fatiguability
d) Basal crepitation
2
,14. Which one of the following clinical features denotes cardiac disease grade III?
a) Patient is comfortable even at rest
b) Patient is asymptomatic initially
c) Marked limitation of physical activity
d) Absolute limitation of physical activity
15. The MOST common causative organism of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy is
a) Streptococcus faecalis
b) Escherichia coli
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Staphylococcus aureus
16. The PRIORITY management of uncomplicated malaria during the second trimester includes
administration of
a) Oral quinine
b) Parenteral quinine
c) Artemether lumefantrine
d) Sulphadoxine pyrimethamine
17. The factor that is in indicative of an abnormal labour pattern on vaginal examination is
a) The vagina is warm and moist
b) Cervical canal is long and thick
c) Cervical canal is short and thin
d) The vagina is hot and dry
18. Which one of the following statements is correct about secondary post-partum haemorrhage?
a) Mostly occurs between the 8th-14th day post-partumly
b) Results due to bleeding immediately after delivery
c) Can extend up to the first 46 days following delivery
d) Is diagnosed by presence of persistent lochia serosa
19. A non- pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes
a) Entonox
b) Cyclothane
c) Homeopathy
d) Diamorphine
3
, 20. Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F)
a) The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is trauma to the
genital tract during delivery.
b) There are four major principles to follow in the specific management of a mother
with immediate postpartum haemorrhage.
21. In monozygotic twinning, splitting after twelfth (12th ) day of fertilization is highly
associated with
a) Fetal papyraceous
b) Premature birth
c) Siamese twin
d) Diamniotic twin
22. The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
a) Phenobarbitone
b) Magnesium sulphate
c) Calcium gluconate
d) Sodium bicarbonate
23. The main clinical feature in Hyperemesis gravidarum is
a) Persistent vomiting or nausea
b) Persistent sight related problems
c) Persistent diarrhea and vomiting
d) Frequency or urgency of micturition
24. Wernickle’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are among the complications of
a) Placenta praevia
b) Hypertensive disorders
c) Vitamin B deficiency
d) Hyperemesis gravidarum
25. Uterine apoplexy is associated with
a) Incidental haemorrhage
b) Placental abruption
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) Placenta preavia
4
PART 1: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Persistent nausea and vomiting related to pregnancy is indicative of
a) Morning sickness
b) Multiple gestation
c) Hyperemesis gravidarum
d) Hypertensive disorders
2. The complication that is associated with hyperemesis gravidarum is
a) Wernikle’s encephalopathy
b) Sheehan’s syndrome
c) Maurice encephalitis
d) Antepartum bleeding
3. Specific management of moderate pre- eclampsia involves
a) Admission at first contact
b) Managing as an outpatient case
c) Admission in the intensive care unit
d) Encouraging plenty of oral fluids
4. Arched back and tightly clenched teeth, are among the features of which stage of eclampsia:-
a) Clonic
b) Tonic
c) Premonitory
d) Coma
5. Causes of polyhydramnious includes :-
a) Congenital abnormalities and chorioangioma
b) Severe fetal hypoxia and multiple pregnancy
c) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus and anaemia
d) Rhesus D isoimmunisation and post datism
6. Some of the neonatal complications of eclampsia are:-
a) Cerebral haemorrhage and pneumonia
b) Severe asphyxia and prematurity
c) Fractures and soft tissue trauma
d) Respiratory distress and hypoglycaemia
1
,Indicate whether True or False to answer questions 7 & 8.
7. i) Prenatal tuberculosis always leads to neonatal tuberculosis.
ii. Clinical features of tuberculosis prenatally are anaemia, intrauterine fetal death
and glycosuria among others.
8. i. Congenital malformations are common in Monozygotic twinning .
ii. Dichorionicity only occurs in diazygotic twinning.
9. Productive cough, dyspnoea at rest and generalized oedema are among the features of:-
a) Folate deficiency
b) Very severe anaemia
c) Mild iron deficiency
d) Severe anaemia
10. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
a) Intraplacental haemorrhage
b) Intrapartum haemorrhage
c) Extraplacental haemorrhage
d) Preterm haemorrhage
11. Chemical diabetes mellitus is a classification based on
a) Symptom are absent and abnormal specific laboratory results
b) Presence of symptoms and abnormal specific laboratory results
c) Previous congenital abnormalities and unexplained stillbirth
d) Previous birth of a baby weighing >4.3kg and spontaneous abortion
12. Diamorphic anaemia results due to deficiency of
a) Iron and thiamine
b) Iron and folic acid
c) Folic acid and thiamine
d) Liver enzymes and iron
13. A MAJOR predisposing factor to cardiac disease in pregnancy includes
a) Rheumatic heart disease
b) Notable peripheral oedema
c) Easy fatiguability
d) Basal crepitation
2
,14. Which one of the following clinical features denotes cardiac disease grade III?
a) Patient is comfortable even at rest
b) Patient is asymptomatic initially
c) Marked limitation of physical activity
d) Absolute limitation of physical activity
15. The MOST common causative organism of acute pyelonephritis in pregnancy is
a) Streptococcus faecalis
b) Escherichia coli
c) Proteus vulgaris
d) Staphylococcus aureus
16. The PRIORITY management of uncomplicated malaria during the second trimester includes
administration of
a) Oral quinine
b) Parenteral quinine
c) Artemether lumefantrine
d) Sulphadoxine pyrimethamine
17. The factor that is in indicative of an abnormal labour pattern on vaginal examination is
a) The vagina is warm and moist
b) Cervical canal is long and thick
c) Cervical canal is short and thin
d) The vagina is hot and dry
18. Which one of the following statements is correct about secondary post-partum haemorrhage?
a) Mostly occurs between the 8th-14th day post-partumly
b) Results due to bleeding immediately after delivery
c) Can extend up to the first 46 days following delivery
d) Is diagnosed by presence of persistent lochia serosa
19. A non- pharmacological measure of pain relief in labour includes
a) Entonox
b) Cyclothane
c) Homeopathy
d) Diamorphine
3
, 20. Indicate whether the following statements are TRUE (T) or FALSE (F)
a) The most common cause of immediate postpartum haemorrhage is trauma to the
genital tract during delivery.
b) There are four major principles to follow in the specific management of a mother
with immediate postpartum haemorrhage.
21. In monozygotic twinning, splitting after twelfth (12th ) day of fertilization is highly
associated with
a) Fetal papyraceous
b) Premature birth
c) Siamese twin
d) Diamniotic twin
22. The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
a) Phenobarbitone
b) Magnesium sulphate
c) Calcium gluconate
d) Sodium bicarbonate
23. The main clinical feature in Hyperemesis gravidarum is
a) Persistent vomiting or nausea
b) Persistent sight related problems
c) Persistent diarrhea and vomiting
d) Frequency or urgency of micturition
24. Wernickle’s encephalopathy and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are among the complications of
a) Placenta praevia
b) Hypertensive disorders
c) Vitamin B deficiency
d) Hyperemesis gravidarum
25. Uterine apoplexy is associated with
a) Incidental haemorrhage
b) Placental abruption
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) Placenta preavia
4
