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Which type of bacteria, Gram-positive or Gram-negative, is more resistant to antibiotics
due to its outer membrane CORRECT ANSWER
Gram-negative bacteria.
Klebsiella species: Gram-negative or Gram-positive CORRECT ANSWER
Gram-negative.
Clostridium species: Gram-negative or Gram-positive CORRECT ANSWER
Gram-positive.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae: Gram-negative or Gram-positive CORRECT ANSWER
Gram-negative.
Bacillus anthracis: Gram-negative or Gram-positive CORRECT ANSWER
Gram-positive.
Which class of antibiotics is most effective against Gram-positive bacteria CORRECT
ANSWER
Penicillins, cephalosporins, and vancomycin are most effective against Gram-positive
bacteria.
Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria
like Escherichia coli CORRECT ANSWER
Fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, and cephalosporins are commonly used to treat
Gram-negative infections.
,What type of bacteria is vancomycin specifically used to treat CORRECT ANSWER
Vancomycin is used to treat Gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus aureus
and Enterococcus species, including MRSA.
Why are aminoglycosides often combined with penicillins for treating Gram-negative
infections CORRECT ANSWER
Aminoglycosides are effective against Gram-negative bacteria, and penicillins can
disrupt the cell wall, allowing aminoglycosides to penetrate and work more effectively.
Which antibiotic would be a first-line treatment for a Streptococcus pyogenes infection
CORRECT ANSWER
Penicillin is the first-line treatment for Streptococcus pyogenes (a Gram-positive
bacterium).
Which class of antibiotics is often used to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections
CORRECT ANSWER
Piperacillin-tazobactam, ciprofloxacin, and aminoglycosides are often used to treat
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (a Gram-negative bacterium).
What makes treating infections caused by Gram-negative bacteria more challenging
with antibiotics CORRECT ANSWER
The outer membrane in Gram-negative bacteria can prevent many antibiotics from
entering, making these infections more difficult
Which antibiotics would be ineffective against Gram-negative bacteria due to their
mechanism of action CORRECT ANSWER
Penicillin G and vancomycin are less effective against Gram-negative bacteria because
they primarily target Gram-positive bacteria.
,Which bacteria would be targeted by a cephalosporin like ceftriaxone CORRECT
ANSWER
Ceftriaxone is broad-spectrum and effective against both Gram-positive and Gram-
negative bacteria, including Neisseria gonorrhoeae (Gram-negative) and Streptococcus
pneumoniae (Gram-positive).
Lymphocytes that do reach the thymus become ________ and those that do not
become _______. CORRECT ANSWER
T-cells; B-cells
Which of the following is not considered a central location of lymph nodes CORRECT
ANSWER
Tibial
Which of the following statements is false regarding the spleen CORRECT ANSWER
Limited blood within the lobules
The thymus is located with the _______. CORRECT ANSWER
Mediastinum
Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is the most responsible for promoting
allergic reactions CORRECT ANSWER
IgE
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease CORRECT ANSWER
Alzheimer's Disease
T-cell activation requires a/an _______ cell.
Accessory
, Which of the following characteristics apply to type 1 diabetes mellitus CORRECT
ANSWER
It is a disease of insulin deficiency
In prescribing thyroxine in the elder population, which of the following statements is true
CORRECT ANSWER
Presentation of thyroxine excess in elders includes angina
The most common cause of hypothyroidism is:
Autoimmune thyroiditis
Which is most likely to be reported in Graves' disease CORRECT ANSWER
Decreased TSH along with high T3 and T4
Physical exam findings in Graves' disease likely include: CORRECT ANSWER
Tremor
Metabolic Syndrome CORRECT ANSWER
A syndrome marked by the presence of usually three or more of a group of factors (as
high blood pressure, abdominal obesity, high triglyceride levels, low HDL levels, and
high fasting levels of blood sugar) that are linked to increased risk of cardiovascular
disease and Type 2 diabetes.
A patient is admitted to a hospital with symptoms of heart failure that include dyspnea,
fatigue, peripheral edema, and distention of the jugular veins. Further assessment
reveals left ventricular hypertrophy and evidence of a previous myocardial infarction.
Which medication regimen should an advanced practice registered nurse recommend
for this patient CORRECT ANSWER
Digoxin alone as a first-line drug
Digoxin, NSAIDS, and hydrochlorothiazide
Calcium channel blocker and antidysrhythmic agent
Diuretic, ACE inhibitor, adn beta-blocker