Advanced Pharmacology WGU D116 Common practice test
Questions and Answers; verified and accurate 2025
A patient is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB) for stable angina. The patient's
spouse asks how calcium channel blockers relieve pain.
The provider should explain that CCBs __________. - correct answer YES help relax
peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload
increase the QT interval
increase the heart rate to improve myocardial contractility
NO improve coronary artery perfusion
Incorrect. CCBs do not improve coronary artery perfusion.
Correct! CCBs promote relaxation of peripheral arterioles, resulting in a decrease in
afterload, which reduces the cardiac oxygen demand. CCBs do not improve coronary
artery perfusion. CCBs reduce the heart rate and suppress contractility; they do not
affect the QT interval.
A patient with stage C heart failure (HF) who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a beta-
blocker, and a diuretic begins to have increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased
urine output. The provider orders spironolactone.
What should a nurse instruct the patient to do? - correct answer Take extra fluids
YES Avoid potassium supplements
Use a salt substitute instead of salt
Monitor for a decreased heart rate
Correct! Spironolactone is added to therapy for patients with worsening symptoms of
HF. Because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should not take
supplemental potassium. Patients taking digoxin need to monitor their heart rate. Extra
fluids are not indicated. Salt substitutes contain potassium.
A prescriber has ordered propranolol for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia.
The provider should tell the nurse preparing to administer this drug to be concerned
about which condition in the patient's history? - correct answer Paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia associated with emotion
,Hypertension
Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias
YES Asthma
Correct! Propranolol is contraindicated in patients with asthma because it is a
nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist and can cause bronchoconstriction and
exacerbate asthma. It is used to treat tachyarrhythmias and paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia evoked by emotion, so it is not contraindicated for patients with these
conditions. It lowers blood pressure, so it would be helpful in patients with hypertension.
A patient with severe, chronic COPD uses an inhaled LABA/glucocorticoid but continues
to have frequent exacerbation of symptoms.
What should the nurse contact the provider to discuss? - correct answer Changing to
oral theophylline twice daily
YES Adding roflumilast once daily
NO Using an ipratropium/albuterol combination twice daily
Prescribing oral steroids once daily
Incorrect. Ipratropium is used to treat bronchospasm in COPD. Correct! For patients
with chronic, severe COPD, the risk of exacerbations may be reduced with roflumilast.
Theophylline is used only when other bronchodilators are not effective. Oral steroids are
not indicated for this use. Ipratropium is used to treat bronchospasm in COPD.
A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks the provider about a long-
acting beta2-agonist medication.
What should the provider tell this patient? - correct answer YES "LABAs should be
combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid."
"LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms."
"LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths."
"LABAs are safer than short-acting beta2 agonists."
Correct! LABAs can increase the risk of asthma-related deaths when used improperly;
this risk is minimized when LABAs are combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid. LABAs
are not safer than SABAs, and they are not used PRN. LABAs increase the risk of
asthma-related deaths.
,A patient with a cough has been advised to use guaifenesin. The patient asks the
provider to explain the purpose of the drug.
Which statement by the provider explains the function of guaifenesin? - correct answer
"It helps relieve chest pain associated with a cough."
"It dries secretions to help suppress coughing so patients can rest."
YES "It helps stimulate the flow of secretions to increase cough productivity."
"It stimulates the body's natural immune responses."
Correct! Expectorants stimulate the flow of respiratory tract secretions to improve cough
productivity. Guaifenesin does not dry secretions because it does not have
anticholinergic effects. Guaifenesin does not alleviate the pain associated with cough.
Guaifenesin does not stimulate immune responses.
A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The
student asks the nurse what this means.
What should the nurse explain about boxed warnings? - correct answer They provide
information about antidotes in the event that toxicity occurs.
YES They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects.
They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug.
They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances.
Correct! Boxed warnings (also known as black box warnings) are used to alert providers
to potential side effects and ways to prevent or reduce harm from these side effects. A
boxed warning is placed on any drug that, although useful, has serious side effects; this
is a way to keep drugs on the market while protecting patients. Many of these drugs are
used in situations that are not life-threatening. The boxed warning provides a concise
summary and not a detailed explanation of drug side effects. The boxed warning does
not include antidotes to toxicity.
What is polypharmacy? - correct answer NO A person takes a combination of
prescription and over-the-counter medications.
A person takes different dosage forms (e.g., oral and injectable medications).
YES A person takes multiple medications.
NO A person takes five or more medications.
, Incorrect. Polypharmacy usually has no number associated with it, and if it has a
number, it is usually higher than five. Incorrect. Polypharmacy usually refers to
prescribed medications.
Correct! In its simplest form, polypharmacy can be broken down into its roots: poly
(multiple) and pharmacy (medications).
What is referred to as the prescribing cascade? - correct answer YES The process
whereby drug side effects are misdiagnosed as symptoms of another problem, resulting
in further prescriptions
Correct! This is the definition of the prescribing cascade.
Mrs. T has type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and a history positive for MI. The
pharmacy calls you to inform you of a clear example of polypharmacy.
What is an example of polypharmacy? - correct answer YES The patient is taking
multiple medications from multiple providers and probably needs to discontinue some of
them.
Correct! The pharmacy and pharmacist are good resources to identify duplications in
therapy and overprescribing from multiple providers.
The Joint Commission identified which of the following breakdowns as a contributor to
ineffective transitions of care? - correct answer Discharge instructions to patient and
caregivers
NO Contact with the next provider of care to exchange health information about mutual
patients
YES Lack of accountability
Medication reconciliation by interdisciplinary teams
Incorrect. Contact with the next provider of care to exchange health information about
mutual patients aids transition of care. Correct! The Joint Commission has outlined the
root cause of ineffective transition of care to be lack of accountability.
Questions and Answers; verified and accurate 2025
A patient is taking a calcium channel blocker (CCB) for stable angina. The patient's
spouse asks how calcium channel blockers relieve pain.
The provider should explain that CCBs __________. - correct answer YES help relax
peripheral arterioles to reduce afterload
increase the QT interval
increase the heart rate to improve myocardial contractility
NO improve coronary artery perfusion
Incorrect. CCBs do not improve coronary artery perfusion.
Correct! CCBs promote relaxation of peripheral arterioles, resulting in a decrease in
afterload, which reduces the cardiac oxygen demand. CCBs do not improve coronary
artery perfusion. CCBs reduce the heart rate and suppress contractility; they do not
affect the QT interval.
A patient with stage C heart failure (HF) who has been taking an ACE inhibitor, a beta-
blocker, and a diuretic begins to have increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased
urine output. The provider orders spironolactone.
What should a nurse instruct the patient to do? - correct answer Take extra fluids
YES Avoid potassium supplements
Use a salt substitute instead of salt
Monitor for a decreased heart rate
Correct! Spironolactone is added to therapy for patients with worsening symptoms of
HF. Because spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, patients should not take
supplemental potassium. Patients taking digoxin need to monitor their heart rate. Extra
fluids are not indicated. Salt substitutes contain potassium.
A prescriber has ordered propranolol for a patient with recurrent ventricular tachycardia.
The provider should tell the nurse preparing to administer this drug to be concerned
about which condition in the patient's history? - correct answer Paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia associated with emotion
,Hypertension
Exercise-induced tachyarrhythmias
YES Asthma
Correct! Propranolol is contraindicated in patients with asthma because it is a
nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonist and can cause bronchoconstriction and
exacerbate asthma. It is used to treat tachyarrhythmias and paroxysmal atrial
tachycardia evoked by emotion, so it is not contraindicated for patients with these
conditions. It lowers blood pressure, so it would be helpful in patients with hypertension.
A patient with severe, chronic COPD uses an inhaled LABA/glucocorticoid but continues
to have frequent exacerbation of symptoms.
What should the nurse contact the provider to discuss? - correct answer Changing to
oral theophylline twice daily
YES Adding roflumilast once daily
NO Using an ipratropium/albuterol combination twice daily
Prescribing oral steroids once daily
Incorrect. Ipratropium is used to treat bronchospasm in COPD. Correct! For patients
with chronic, severe COPD, the risk of exacerbations may be reduced with roflumilast.
Theophylline is used only when other bronchodilators are not effective. Oral steroids are
not indicated for this use. Ipratropium is used to treat bronchospasm in COPD.
A patient with persistent, frequent asthma exacerbations asks the provider about a long-
acting beta2-agonist medication.
What should the provider tell this patient? - correct answer YES "LABAs should be
combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid."
"LABAs can be used on an as-needed basis to treat symptoms."
"LABAs reduce the risk of asthma-related deaths."
"LABAs are safer than short-acting beta2 agonists."
Correct! LABAs can increase the risk of asthma-related deaths when used improperly;
this risk is minimized when LABAs are combined with an inhaled glucocorticoid. LABAs
are not safer than SABAs, and they are not used PRN. LABAs increase the risk of
asthma-related deaths.
,A patient with a cough has been advised to use guaifenesin. The patient asks the
provider to explain the purpose of the drug.
Which statement by the provider explains the function of guaifenesin? - correct answer
"It helps relieve chest pain associated with a cough."
"It dries secretions to help suppress coughing so patients can rest."
YES "It helps stimulate the flow of secretions to increase cough productivity."
"It stimulates the body's natural immune responses."
Correct! Expectorants stimulate the flow of respiratory tract secretions to improve cough
productivity. Guaifenesin does not dry secretions because it does not have
anticholinergic effects. Guaifenesin does not alleviate the pain associated with cough.
Guaifenesin does not stimulate immune responses.
A nursing student is preparing to give a medication that has a boxed warning. The
student asks the nurse what this means.
What should the nurse explain about boxed warnings? - correct answer They provide
information about antidotes in the event that toxicity occurs.
YES They alert prescribers to measures to mitigate potential harm from side effects.
They provide detailed information about the adverse effects of the drug.
They indicate that a drug should not be given except in life-threatening circumstances.
Correct! Boxed warnings (also known as black box warnings) are used to alert providers
to potential side effects and ways to prevent or reduce harm from these side effects. A
boxed warning is placed on any drug that, although useful, has serious side effects; this
is a way to keep drugs on the market while protecting patients. Many of these drugs are
used in situations that are not life-threatening. The boxed warning provides a concise
summary and not a detailed explanation of drug side effects. The boxed warning does
not include antidotes to toxicity.
What is polypharmacy? - correct answer NO A person takes a combination of
prescription and over-the-counter medications.
A person takes different dosage forms (e.g., oral and injectable medications).
YES A person takes multiple medications.
NO A person takes five or more medications.
, Incorrect. Polypharmacy usually has no number associated with it, and if it has a
number, it is usually higher than five. Incorrect. Polypharmacy usually refers to
prescribed medications.
Correct! In its simplest form, polypharmacy can be broken down into its roots: poly
(multiple) and pharmacy (medications).
What is referred to as the prescribing cascade? - correct answer YES The process
whereby drug side effects are misdiagnosed as symptoms of another problem, resulting
in further prescriptions
Correct! This is the definition of the prescribing cascade.
Mrs. T has type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and a history positive for MI. The
pharmacy calls you to inform you of a clear example of polypharmacy.
What is an example of polypharmacy? - correct answer YES The patient is taking
multiple medications from multiple providers and probably needs to discontinue some of
them.
Correct! The pharmacy and pharmacist are good resources to identify duplications in
therapy and overprescribing from multiple providers.
The Joint Commission identified which of the following breakdowns as a contributor to
ineffective transitions of care? - correct answer Discharge instructions to patient and
caregivers
NO Contact with the next provider of care to exchange health information about mutual
patients
YES Lack of accountability
Medication reconciliation by interdisciplinary teams
Incorrect. Contact with the next provider of care to exchange health information about
mutual patients aids transition of care. Correct! The Joint Commission has outlined the
root cause of ineffective transition of care to be lack of accountability.
