1
CRITICAL CARE EXAM 2 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWER 2026 JUST
RELEASED VERSION
1. The nurse is to calculate gtt/min to tranfuse one unit
160mL of platelets over one hour using blood tubing that
has a drip factor of 15. How many gtt/min?
a. 40
b. 35
c. 45
d. 25
2. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing a stroke
understands the importance of establishing the onset of
the stroke before administering a tissue plasminogen
activator based on which recommendation?
a. The activator is not recommended for patients with increased
ICP
b. Activator is not recommended if the stroke is less than 3 hour
c. Activator is not recommended if the stoke is greater than 3
hours
d. The activator is recommended for transient ischemic attacks
3. The nurse working in the ER uses which diagnostic scale
to assess the severity of presenting signs and symptoms
of stroke?
a. Hemorrhage scale
b. Glasgow outcome scale
c. NIH stroke scale
d. Cincinnati scale
4. The nurse understands that the rapid response teams (RRTs) have
been implemented to function how?
a. Address changes in patients clinical conditions before a cardiac
, 2
and/or respiratory arrest occurs
b. Ensure intervention are available quickly
when a patient conditions become
unstable
c. Be available monday-friday
d. Improve recognition of and response to deterioration in
patients
e. Provide a unit based resource team to intervene as needed
5. What are key roles for the RN in a code blue?
Adjusted this Answer choice based on the table,
this should be correct now
a. Coordinate use of crash cart
b. Direct code
c. Measure vitals
d. Administer meds
e. Intubate pt
6. The nurse is caring for a patient with new onset
of slurred speech, facial droop, and left sided
weakness 8 hrs ago. Diagnostic computed
tomography scan rules out the presence of
bleed. What actions are most important to
include in the patients plan of care?
a. Make frequent neurological assessments
b. Maintain CO2 level at 50
c. Restrain affected limb to prevent injury
d. Prepare for thrombolytic administration
e. Maintain MAP less than 150
7. The nurse admits a patient to the emergency
department with new onset of slurred
speech an right-sided weakness. What is the
priority nursing action?
a. Determine the patient’s drug allergies
, 3
b. Assess the patients orientation
c. Assess for the presence of headache
d. Determine the time of symptom onset
8. Patients who are not able to meet their nutritional needs
orally should be started on enteral nutrition within what
time frame?
a. 6-12 hours
b. 12-24 hours
c. 24-48 hours
d. 5 days
9. Some patients may have decreased appetie,
difficulties in swallowing, or some type of surgery that
interferes with eating. When this happens, when one
is unable; to eat, nutrition must be supplied in a
different way. What method can be utilized?
, 4
a. Mechanical diet
b. Soft food diet
c. Enteral feeding
d. Pureed diet
10. A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid
therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His
prescription runs out before his next appointment with his
physician. Because he s asymptomatic, he thinks it is all
right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is liekley
to happent to this patient?
a. He will go into adrenal crisis
b. His autoimmune disease will go into remmission
c. He will go into thyroid storm
d. Nothing; it is appropriate to stop the medication for 3 days
e. nasojejunal tube
11. Of the following, for which patient would you suggest oral or
enteral feeding?
a. A patient with a GI obstruction
b. A patient who is severly dehydrated
c. A patient who has been NPO for 36 hours
d. A patient experiencing intractable vomiting
12. When flushing a feeding tube, the nurse knows to use how many
mL of water?
a. 15 mL
b. 30 mL
c. 50 mL
d. 100 mL
13. A stress ulcer is a chronic form of peptic ulcer.
a. True
b. False
14. What is the preferred diet for a patient with cirrhosis with creased
ammonia levels?
CRITICAL CARE EXAM 2 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWER 2026 JUST
RELEASED VERSION
1. The nurse is to calculate gtt/min to tranfuse one unit
160mL of platelets over one hour using blood tubing that
has a drip factor of 15. How many gtt/min?
a. 40
b. 35
c. 45
d. 25
2. The nurse is caring for a patient experiencing a stroke
understands the importance of establishing the onset of
the stroke before administering a tissue plasminogen
activator based on which recommendation?
a. The activator is not recommended for patients with increased
ICP
b. Activator is not recommended if the stroke is less than 3 hour
c. Activator is not recommended if the stoke is greater than 3
hours
d. The activator is recommended for transient ischemic attacks
3. The nurse working in the ER uses which diagnostic scale
to assess the severity of presenting signs and symptoms
of stroke?
a. Hemorrhage scale
b. Glasgow outcome scale
c. NIH stroke scale
d. Cincinnati scale
4. The nurse understands that the rapid response teams (RRTs) have
been implemented to function how?
a. Address changes in patients clinical conditions before a cardiac
, 2
and/or respiratory arrest occurs
b. Ensure intervention are available quickly
when a patient conditions become
unstable
c. Be available monday-friday
d. Improve recognition of and response to deterioration in
patients
e. Provide a unit based resource team to intervene as needed
5. What are key roles for the RN in a code blue?
Adjusted this Answer choice based on the table,
this should be correct now
a. Coordinate use of crash cart
b. Direct code
c. Measure vitals
d. Administer meds
e. Intubate pt
6. The nurse is caring for a patient with new onset
of slurred speech, facial droop, and left sided
weakness 8 hrs ago. Diagnostic computed
tomography scan rules out the presence of
bleed. What actions are most important to
include in the patients plan of care?
a. Make frequent neurological assessments
b. Maintain CO2 level at 50
c. Restrain affected limb to prevent injury
d. Prepare for thrombolytic administration
e. Maintain MAP less than 150
7. The nurse admits a patient to the emergency
department with new onset of slurred
speech an right-sided weakness. What is the
priority nursing action?
a. Determine the patient’s drug allergies
, 3
b. Assess the patients orientation
c. Assess for the presence of headache
d. Determine the time of symptom onset
8. Patients who are not able to meet their nutritional needs
orally should be started on enteral nutrition within what
time frame?
a. 6-12 hours
b. 12-24 hours
c. 24-48 hours
d. 5 days
9. Some patients may have decreased appetie,
difficulties in swallowing, or some type of surgery that
interferes with eating. When this happens, when one
is unable; to eat, nutrition must be supplied in a
different way. What method can be utilized?
, 4
a. Mechanical diet
b. Soft food diet
c. Enteral feeding
d. Pureed diet
10. A patient has been on daily, high-dose glucocorticoid
therapy for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. His
prescription runs out before his next appointment with his
physician. Because he s asymptomatic, he thinks it is all
right to withhold the medication for 3 days. What is liekley
to happent to this patient?
a. He will go into adrenal crisis
b. His autoimmune disease will go into remmission
c. He will go into thyroid storm
d. Nothing; it is appropriate to stop the medication for 3 days
e. nasojejunal tube
11. Of the following, for which patient would you suggest oral or
enteral feeding?
a. A patient with a GI obstruction
b. A patient who is severly dehydrated
c. A patient who has been NPO for 36 hours
d. A patient experiencing intractable vomiting
12. When flushing a feeding tube, the nurse knows to use how many
mL of water?
a. 15 mL
b. 30 mL
c. 50 mL
d. 100 mL
13. A stress ulcer is a chronic form of peptic ulcer.
a. True
b. False
14. What is the preferred diet for a patient with cirrhosis with creased
ammonia levels?
