uWISE OBGYN QUESTIONS LATEST VERSION
WITH
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | EXPERT
GRADED A+ STUDY
GUIDE TO ACE THE EXAM 2026/2027 LATEST
A 25-year-old G0 woman is scheduled to discuss her recent abnormal
Pap smear which showed atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance (ASCUS).She has had one Pap smearat age22 which was
normal. Her only significant gynecologic history is genital warts that
have not responded to treatment with local application of trichloroacetic
acid. She has had eight sexual partners. She uses condoms and oral
contraceptives. She has smoked a pack a day for the past two years.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the
management of this patient?
A. HPV typing
B. Repeat Pap smear in three years
C. Cone biopsy
D. Cryotherapy
E. Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP) - ✔✔✔ANSWER-
A
,HPV typing is an option in the initial triage of the finding of atypical
squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on a Pap smear.
If a high-risk HPV type is detected, then the patient needs a colposcopy
with biopsies. An alternative approach can be close surveillance with
repeat Pap smears in 12 months and if normal, she may return to routine
screening. Initiation of treatment by way of cone biopsy, LEEP, or
cryotherapy is not indicated at this time without a biopsy-confirmed
diagnosis of cervical dysplasia.
A 19-year-old G0 woman presents with lower abdominal cramping. The
pain started with her menses and has persisted, despite resolution of the
bleeding. She thinks she may have a fever, but has not taken her
temperature. No urinary frequency or dysuria are present. Her bowel
habits are regular.She deniesvomiting, but has mild nausea. A yellow
blood-tinged vaginal discharge preceded her menses. No pruritus or
odor was noted. She is sexually active, uses oral contraceptives and
states that her partner does not like condoms. On examination:
temperature is 100.2°F (37.9°C); pulse 9 0; blood pressure 110/60. She
is well-developed and nourished and in mild distress. No flank pain is
elicited. Her abdomen has normal bowel sounds, but is very tender with
guarding in the lower quadrants. No rebound is present. Pelvic
examination reveals a moderate amount of thick yellow discharge. The
cervix is friable with yellow mucoid disch - ✔✔✔ANSWER-B
This patient has findings suggestive of acute salpingitis (pelvic
inflammatory disease) including lower abdominal pain, adnexal
tenderness, fever, cervical motion tenderness, and vaginal discharge.
Mucopurulent cervicitis with exacerbation in the symptoms during and
after menstruation is classically gonorrhea. Chlamydia is frequently
associated with gonorrhea and also causes cervicitis and pelvic
Page 2 of 469
,inflammatory disease. Cervicitis alone would not explain this patient's
constellation of findings. Trichomonas may cause a yellow frothy
discharge, and Candida may cause a thick white cottage cheese like
discharge, but neither would cause fever and abdominal pain.
A 39-year-old G0 woman presents to the clinic reporting non-tender spots
on her vulva for about a week. No pruritus or pain is present. She also
notes a brownish rash on the palms of her hands. She admits to IV drug
abuse. She was diagnosed as HIV-positive two years ago, but has not been
compliant with suggested treatment. On examination, three elevated
plaques with rolled edges are noted on thevulva. Theyare non-tender.A
brown macular rash is noted on the palms of her hands and the soles of
her feet. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this
patient?
A. Obtain a treponemal-specific test
B. Biopsy of the lesion
C. Colposcopic evaluation of the vulvar lesions
D. Culture the base of the lesion
E. Initiate empiric treatment with doxycycline and ceftriaxone -
✔✔✔ANSWER-A
The diagnosis of syphilis is often established by serologic testing. Non-
treponemal tests (VDRL or RPR) are non-specific. In this patient with
high suspicion for syphilis, specific testing with treponemal antibody can
confirm infection. The classic coiled spirochete is easily seen with dark-
field microscopy but availability is limited. A characteristic finding is a
macular rash on the palms and soles that are often described as copper
penny lesions. Colposcopy would not be diagnostic, but certainly is
, helpful to evaluate for any vulvar lesions thought to be dysplastic.
Biopsies can be stained for spirochetes and may show a necrotizing
vasculitis, but certainly would not be the most expedient way to make the
diagnosis. Penicillin G is the preferred drug for treating all stages of
syphilis.
A 32-year-old nulliparous woman with a last menstrual period three
weeks ago, presents with a three-month history of a malodorous vaginal
discharge. She reports no pruritus or irritation. She has been sexually
active with a new partner for the last four months. Her past medical
history is unremarkable. Pelvic examination reveals normal external
genitalia without rash, ulcerations or lesions. Some discharge is noted on
the perineum. The vagina reveals only a thin, gray homogeneous
discharge. The vaginal pH is 5.0. A wet prep is shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Doxycycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Azithromycin
E. Penicilli - ✔✔✔ANSWER-C
A 28-year-old G2P2 woman returns today for follow up on her abnormal
pap smear which reveals atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance (ASCUS). Reflex HPV testing is positive for high risk type.
She has never had a prior abnormal pap smear, and has been following
the recommended screening guidelines. She is asymptomatic. Her pelvic
Page 4 of 469
WITH
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | EXPERT
GRADED A+ STUDY
GUIDE TO ACE THE EXAM 2026/2027 LATEST
A 25-year-old G0 woman is scheduled to discuss her recent abnormal
Pap smear which showed atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance (ASCUS).She has had one Pap smearat age22 which was
normal. Her only significant gynecologic history is genital warts that
have not responded to treatment with local application of trichloroacetic
acid. She has had eight sexual partners. She uses condoms and oral
contraceptives. She has smoked a pack a day for the past two years.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the
management of this patient?
A. HPV typing
B. Repeat Pap smear in three years
C. Cone biopsy
D. Cryotherapy
E. Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure (LEEP) - ✔✔✔ANSWER-
A
,HPV typing is an option in the initial triage of the finding of atypical
squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on a Pap smear.
If a high-risk HPV type is detected, then the patient needs a colposcopy
with biopsies. An alternative approach can be close surveillance with
repeat Pap smears in 12 months and if normal, she may return to routine
screening. Initiation of treatment by way of cone biopsy, LEEP, or
cryotherapy is not indicated at this time without a biopsy-confirmed
diagnosis of cervical dysplasia.
A 19-year-old G0 woman presents with lower abdominal cramping. The
pain started with her menses and has persisted, despite resolution of the
bleeding. She thinks she may have a fever, but has not taken her
temperature. No urinary frequency or dysuria are present. Her bowel
habits are regular.She deniesvomiting, but has mild nausea. A yellow
blood-tinged vaginal discharge preceded her menses. No pruritus or
odor was noted. She is sexually active, uses oral contraceptives and
states that her partner does not like condoms. On examination:
temperature is 100.2°F (37.9°C); pulse 9 0; blood pressure 110/60. She
is well-developed and nourished and in mild distress. No flank pain is
elicited. Her abdomen has normal bowel sounds, but is very tender with
guarding in the lower quadrants. No rebound is present. Pelvic
examination reveals a moderate amount of thick yellow discharge. The
cervix is friable with yellow mucoid disch - ✔✔✔ANSWER-B
This patient has findings suggestive of acute salpingitis (pelvic
inflammatory disease) including lower abdominal pain, adnexal
tenderness, fever, cervical motion tenderness, and vaginal discharge.
Mucopurulent cervicitis with exacerbation in the symptoms during and
after menstruation is classically gonorrhea. Chlamydia is frequently
associated with gonorrhea and also causes cervicitis and pelvic
Page 2 of 469
,inflammatory disease. Cervicitis alone would not explain this patient's
constellation of findings. Trichomonas may cause a yellow frothy
discharge, and Candida may cause a thick white cottage cheese like
discharge, but neither would cause fever and abdominal pain.
A 39-year-old G0 woman presents to the clinic reporting non-tender spots
on her vulva for about a week. No pruritus or pain is present. She also
notes a brownish rash on the palms of her hands. She admits to IV drug
abuse. She was diagnosed as HIV-positive two years ago, but has not been
compliant with suggested treatment. On examination, three elevated
plaques with rolled edges are noted on thevulva. Theyare non-tender.A
brown macular rash is noted on the palms of her hands and the soles of
her feet. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this
patient?
A. Obtain a treponemal-specific test
B. Biopsy of the lesion
C. Colposcopic evaluation of the vulvar lesions
D. Culture the base of the lesion
E. Initiate empiric treatment with doxycycline and ceftriaxone -
✔✔✔ANSWER-A
The diagnosis of syphilis is often established by serologic testing. Non-
treponemal tests (VDRL or RPR) are non-specific. In this patient with
high suspicion for syphilis, specific testing with treponemal antibody can
confirm infection. The classic coiled spirochete is easily seen with dark-
field microscopy but availability is limited. A characteristic finding is a
macular rash on the palms and soles that are often described as copper
penny lesions. Colposcopy would not be diagnostic, but certainly is
, helpful to evaluate for any vulvar lesions thought to be dysplastic.
Biopsies can be stained for spirochetes and may show a necrotizing
vasculitis, but certainly would not be the most expedient way to make the
diagnosis. Penicillin G is the preferred drug for treating all stages of
syphilis.
A 32-year-old nulliparous woman with a last menstrual period three
weeks ago, presents with a three-month history of a malodorous vaginal
discharge. She reports no pruritus or irritation. She has been sexually
active with a new partner for the last four months. Her past medical
history is unremarkable. Pelvic examination reveals normal external
genitalia without rash, ulcerations or lesions. Some discharge is noted on
the perineum. The vagina reveals only a thin, gray homogeneous
discharge. The vaginal pH is 5.0. A wet prep is shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Doxycycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Azithromycin
E. Penicilli - ✔✔✔ANSWER-C
A 28-year-old G2P2 woman returns today for follow up on her abnormal
pap smear which reveals atypical squamous cells of undetermined
significance (ASCUS). Reflex HPV testing is positive for high risk type.
She has never had a prior abnormal pap smear, and has been following
the recommended screening guidelines. She is asymptomatic. Her pelvic
Page 4 of 469
