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Exam Overview:
This comprehensive CPR Certification examination assesses foundational knowledge, clinical
application, emergency decision-making, professional standards, legal considerations, and real-world
resuscitation scenarios.
Content Distribution:
Adult CPR and AED Use (30 questions)
Child and Infant CPR (20 questions)
High-Quality CPR Principles (15 questions)
Airway Management & Rescue Breathing (15 questions)
AED Operation & Troubleshooting (15 questions)
Choking Management (15 questions)
Special Circumstances (10 questions)
Team Dynamics & BLS Professional Rescuer Concepts (10 questions)
Infection Control & Safety (10 questions)
Ethics, Legal Considerations & Professional Responsibility (10 questions)
1. An adult suddenly collapses in a shopping mall. After ensuring scene safety,
what is the next immediate action?
A. Begin chest compressions
B. Check pulse for 30 seconds
C. Assess responsiveness and breathing simultaneously
D. Deliver two rescue breaths
Rationale: CPR guidelines require checking responsiveness and normal breathing
simultaneously before activating emergency response.
2. What is the correct compression rate for adult CPR?
A. 80–100/min
B. 100–120/min
, C. 120–140/min
D. 60–80/min
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires a rate of 100–120 compressions per minute.
3. Recommended compression depth for adults is:
A. At least 1 inch
B. 1–1.5 inches
C. At least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches
D. Exactly 3 inches
Rationale: Adequate depth ensures coronary and cerebral perfusion.
4. You witness an adult collapse and confirm no pulse. What is the
compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer?
A. 15:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:2
D. Continuous compressions only
Rationale: Adult single-rescuer CPR uses 30 compressions to 2 breaths.
5. Which action improves chest recoil during CPR?
A. Leaning between compressions
B. Allowing full chest recoil after each compression
C. Slowing compression rate
D. Reducing compression depth
Rationale: Full recoil allows venous return and improves cardiac output.
, 6. When should an AED be applied?
A. After 5 cycles of CPR
B. Only by healthcare providers
C. As soon as it becomes available
D. After rescue breaths
Rationale: Early defibrillation improves survival in shockable rhythms.
7. Which rhythm is typically shockable?
A. Asystole
B. Pulseless electrical activity
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. Sinus bradycardia
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is treated with defibrillation.
8. If a victim has agonal gasps, you should:
A. Place in recovery position
B. Begin CPR
C. Provide oxygen only
D. Monitor only
Rationale: Agonal breathing is not normal breathing and requires CPR.
9. The correct hand placement for adult compressions is:
A. Left upper chest
B. Lower abdomen
C. Center of the chest on the lower half of the sternum
D. Over the ribs
, Rationale: Proper placement maximizes effective compressions.
10.During CPR, pulse checks should not exceed:
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Rationale: Pulse checks longer than 10 seconds delay compressions.
11.For child CPR (single rescuer), compression ratio is:
A. 30:2
B. 30:2
C. 15:2
D. 5:1
Rationale: Single rescuer child CPR uses 30:2; 15:2 applies to two rescuers.
12.For two-rescuer child CPR, the ratio is:
A. 30:2
B. 20:2
C. 15:2
D. Continuous compressions
Rationale: Two-rescuer child CPR improves ventilation frequency.
13.Infant compression depth should be:
A. 1 inch
B. About 1.5 inches (4 cm)