KAPLAN NURSING EXIT COMPREHENSIVE
ASSESSMENT EXAM (150 QUESTIONS) PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: THE MOST RECENT AND
COMPREHENSIVE VERSION WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS;
GUARANTEED PASS WITH INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD.
Exam Overview
This comprehensive Kaplan Nursing Exit–style assessment evaluates readiness for professional
nursing practice and licensure-level competency. The exam mirrors national testing standards
and incorporates application-level, clinical decision-making, prioritization, delegation,
pharmacology, pathophysiology, professional standards, and ethical/legal frameworks.
Content Distribution:
Adult Health (Medical-Surgical Nursing) – 45 questions
Pharmacology – 25 questions
Maternal-Newborn – 15 questions
Pediatrics – 15 questions
Mental Health – 15 questions
Leadership & Management – 15 questions
Community Health – 10 questions
Fundamentals, Safety, Ethics, and Professional Standards – 10 questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports increasing
shortness of breath and weight gain of 2.5 kg in 3 days. Which action is the
priority?
A. Restrict fluids to 1 L/day
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Administer prescribed PRN morphine
D. Assess lung sounds and oxygen saturation
Rationale: Acute decompensation is suspected. Assessment is always the first
priority before interventions.
, 2. A client with type 1 diabetes is unconscious with a blood glucose of 42
mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Encourage oral juice
C. Administer IV dextrose 50%
D. Check HbA1c
Rationale: Severe hypoglycemia with unconsciousness requires immediate IV
glucose.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is expected with loop diuretic therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion.
4. A postoperative client develops sudden dyspnea and chest pain. Which is the
priority action?
A. Administer analgesics
B. Apply oxygen and notify provider
C. Encourage coughing
D. Obtain sputum culture
Rationale: Suspected pulmonary embolism; oxygenation is priority.
5. A nurse delegates ambulation of a stable postoperative client to a UAP.
Which instruction is essential?
, A. Report intake and output
B. Monitor IV infusion rate
C. Report dizziness or weakness immediately
D. Change surgical dressing
Rationale: UAP must report safety concerns.
6. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority?
A. Administer heparin
B. Encourage green vegetables
C. Hold warfarin and notify provider
D. Administer aspirin
Rationale: INR is supratherapeutic; bleeding risk high.
7. Which finding indicates lithium toxicity?
A. Polyuria
B. Coarse tremors and confusion
C. Weight gain
D. Mild thirst
Rationale: Neurologic changes indicate toxicity.
8. A newborn with respiratory distress syndrome requires which intervention?
A. Oral feeding
B. Administer surfactant therapy
C. Decrease oxygen
D. Delay intervention
Rationale: Surfactant deficiency causes RDS.
, 9. A toddler with epiglottitis is admitted. What should the nurse avoid?
A. Oxygen setup
B. IV access
C. Throat inspection with tongue blade
D. Emergency airway equipment
Rationale: Throat stimulation can cause airway obstruction.
10.A client with COPD has O2 saturation 88%. Which oxygen delivery is
appropriate?
A. Non-rebreather at 15 L
B. Nasal cannula 1–2 L/min
C. Simple mask 10 L
D. Venturi 60%
Rationale: COPD clients require low-flow oxygen.
11.Which intervention prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia?
A. Supine positioning
B. Elevate HOB 30–45°
C. Routine antibiotics
D. Limit oral care
Rationale: HOB elevation reduces aspiration risk.
12.A nurse receives report on four clients. Who should be seen first?
A. Stable angina
B. New chest pain radiating to jaw
ASSESSMENT EXAM (150 QUESTIONS) PRACTICE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS: THE MOST RECENT AND
COMPREHENSIVE VERSION WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS;
GUARANTEED PASS WITH INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD.
Exam Overview
This comprehensive Kaplan Nursing Exit–style assessment evaluates readiness for professional
nursing practice and licensure-level competency. The exam mirrors national testing standards
and incorporates application-level, clinical decision-making, prioritization, delegation,
pharmacology, pathophysiology, professional standards, and ethical/legal frameworks.
Content Distribution:
Adult Health (Medical-Surgical Nursing) – 45 questions
Pharmacology – 25 questions
Maternal-Newborn – 15 questions
Pediatrics – 15 questions
Mental Health – 15 questions
Leadership & Management – 15 questions
Community Health – 10 questions
Fundamentals, Safety, Ethics, and Professional Standards – 10 questions
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports increasing
shortness of breath and weight gain of 2.5 kg in 3 days. Which action is the
priority?
A. Restrict fluids to 1 L/day
B. Elevate the head of the bed
C. Administer prescribed PRN morphine
D. Assess lung sounds and oxygen saturation
Rationale: Acute decompensation is suspected. Assessment is always the first
priority before interventions.
, 2. A client with type 1 diabetes is unconscious with a blood glucose of 42
mg/dL. What is the priority intervention?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Encourage oral juice
C. Administer IV dextrose 50%
D. Check HbA1c
Rationale: Severe hypoglycemia with unconsciousness requires immediate IV
glucose.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is expected with loop diuretic therapy?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion.
4. A postoperative client develops sudden dyspnea and chest pain. Which is the
priority action?
A. Administer analgesics
B. Apply oxygen and notify provider
C. Encourage coughing
D. Obtain sputum culture
Rationale: Suspected pulmonary embolism; oxygenation is priority.
5. A nurse delegates ambulation of a stable postoperative client to a UAP.
Which instruction is essential?
, A. Report intake and output
B. Monitor IV infusion rate
C. Report dizziness or weakness immediately
D. Change surgical dressing
Rationale: UAP must report safety concerns.
6. A client taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority?
A. Administer heparin
B. Encourage green vegetables
C. Hold warfarin and notify provider
D. Administer aspirin
Rationale: INR is supratherapeutic; bleeding risk high.
7. Which finding indicates lithium toxicity?
A. Polyuria
B. Coarse tremors and confusion
C. Weight gain
D. Mild thirst
Rationale: Neurologic changes indicate toxicity.
8. A newborn with respiratory distress syndrome requires which intervention?
A. Oral feeding
B. Administer surfactant therapy
C. Decrease oxygen
D. Delay intervention
Rationale: Surfactant deficiency causes RDS.
, 9. A toddler with epiglottitis is admitted. What should the nurse avoid?
A. Oxygen setup
B. IV access
C. Throat inspection with tongue blade
D. Emergency airway equipment
Rationale: Throat stimulation can cause airway obstruction.
10.A client with COPD has O2 saturation 88%. Which oxygen delivery is
appropriate?
A. Non-rebreather at 15 L
B. Nasal cannula 1–2 L/min
C. Simple mask 10 L
D. Venturi 60%
Rationale: COPD clients require low-flow oxygen.
11.Which intervention prevents ventilator-associated pneumonia?
A. Supine positioning
B. Elevate HOB 30–45°
C. Routine antibiotics
D. Limit oral care
Rationale: HOB elevation reduces aspiration risk.
12.A nurse receives report on four clients. Who should be seen first?
A. Stable angina
B. New chest pain radiating to jaw
