MED SURG 201 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS
2025/2026 WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || ALREADY GRADED A+
<RECENT VERSION>
1) What is pneumonia? - ANSWER An inflammatory process in the lung
caused by a microorganism. Most often caused by an infectious organism;
but can also be chemical (non-infectious).
2) Who is at risk for pneumonia? - ANSWER - <4 and >65 years old
- Immunocompromised (e.g., HIV, AIDS)
- Chronic, debilitating diseases (esp. pulmonary)
- Institutionalized (increased risk for transmission)
- Clients on ventilators
3) Etiology of Pneumonia - ANSWER Organisms reach lungs by:
- Inhalation of microbes in the air
- Aspiration of normal upper airway flora, or of fluids, substances, or
secretions
4) Examples of inhalation pneumonia and its risk factors - ANSWER -
Strep. pneumonia (very contagious)
- Also, fungal mushroom spores (mycoplasma pneumonia)
- Risks increased with cigarette smoking (due to normal defenses being
compromised)
,5) Examples of aspiration pneumonia and its risk factors - ANSWER -
Stomach contents d/t vomitus
- Can be bacterial or chemical (non-infectious)
- Risks: decreased LOC, dementia, dysphagia, NG tube, depressed gag
or depressed cough reflex
6) What are the 2 types of pneumonia? - ANSWER Community-acquired
(CAP)
- Onset in the community or during the first two days (48 hours) of
hospitalization
- Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common
7) Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)
- Onset >48 hours after admission
- Highest morbidity and mortality of all nosocomial infections
8) Symptoms of pneumonia - ANSWER High fever, chills, cough with
sputum or phlegm, SOB, pleuritic chest pain, general malaise, tachycardia,
headache, loss of appetite, clammy skin, hemoptysis
9) After an adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma, the patient is most likely to
experience what? - ANSWER marked fluctuation in BP
10) What are the signs and symptoms of grave's disease? -
ANSWER tachycardia, palpitations, flushed skin, hyperactivity,
exophthalmos
11) What medication is administered 1st in a Graves' disease crisis? -
ANSWER Propranolol (Inderal) - a beta blocker
,12) Why would a patient have numbness or tingling of the face, mouth, or
extremities after a thyroidectomy? - ANSWER signs of hypocalcemia -
due to injury to parathyroid glands
13) What medication do you keep at the bedside after a thyroidectomy? -
ANSWER calcium gluconate
14) How do you assess the thyroid gland? - ANSWER Have the
patient swallow water during inspection and palpation of the gland
15) A patient has a serum sodium level of 152 mEq. The normal hormonal
response to this situation is? - ANSWER release of ADH
16) Following a hypophysectomy for acromegaly, postoperative nursing
care should focus on what? - ANSWER frequent monitoring of serum and
urine osmolality
17) If a patient opens their eyes when the nurse calls their name, this
indicates what? - ANSWER that their reticular activating system (RAS)
functioning is intact. Pt is not fully conscious.
18) A nurse is preparing to assist the provider in testing a client for
myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following medications should the
nurse have available to administer? - ANSWER tensilon
, 19) A nurse is taking care of a patient who is tentatively diagnosed with
Gullian-Barré syndrome (GBS) due to progressive paralysis of the lower
extremities. Which of the following patient reports is relevant to the
diagnosis of GBS? - ANSWER history of upper respiratory infection
20) What do you call an unusual sound or smell prior to a seizure? -
ANSWER Aura
21) A patient who experienced a spinal cord injury to the level T% rings
the call bell for assistance. The nurse finds the patient with a flushed head
and neck, complaining of headache, and diaphoretic. The pulse is 47, and the
BP is 220/114. The nurse concludes that immediate treatment is needed for: -
ANSWER autonomic dysreflexia
22) What preparations do you do for a patient who is scheduled for an
EEG the next day? - ANSWER withhold daily dose of seizure drugs and
keep the patient awake during the night
23) When the patient responds by extending the arms and rotating them
externally, how would the nurse document the position? -
ANSWER decerebrate positioning.
24) What are the S & S of increased intracranial pressure -
ANSWER increased temperature, decreased pulse, decreased respirations,
increased blood pressure
25) How do you care for an ileal conduit? - ANSWER cleanse the skin
around the stoma using gentle soap and water, rinse and dry well
2025/2026 WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || ALREADY GRADED A+
<RECENT VERSION>
1) What is pneumonia? - ANSWER An inflammatory process in the lung
caused by a microorganism. Most often caused by an infectious organism;
but can also be chemical (non-infectious).
2) Who is at risk for pneumonia? - ANSWER - <4 and >65 years old
- Immunocompromised (e.g., HIV, AIDS)
- Chronic, debilitating diseases (esp. pulmonary)
- Institutionalized (increased risk for transmission)
- Clients on ventilators
3) Etiology of Pneumonia - ANSWER Organisms reach lungs by:
- Inhalation of microbes in the air
- Aspiration of normal upper airway flora, or of fluids, substances, or
secretions
4) Examples of inhalation pneumonia and its risk factors - ANSWER -
Strep. pneumonia (very contagious)
- Also, fungal mushroom spores (mycoplasma pneumonia)
- Risks increased with cigarette smoking (due to normal defenses being
compromised)
,5) Examples of aspiration pneumonia and its risk factors - ANSWER -
Stomach contents d/t vomitus
- Can be bacterial or chemical (non-infectious)
- Risks: decreased LOC, dementia, dysphagia, NG tube, depressed gag
or depressed cough reflex
6) What are the 2 types of pneumonia? - ANSWER Community-acquired
(CAP)
- Onset in the community or during the first two days (48 hours) of
hospitalization
- Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common
7) Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)
- Onset >48 hours after admission
- Highest morbidity and mortality of all nosocomial infections
8) Symptoms of pneumonia - ANSWER High fever, chills, cough with
sputum or phlegm, SOB, pleuritic chest pain, general malaise, tachycardia,
headache, loss of appetite, clammy skin, hemoptysis
9) After an adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma, the patient is most likely to
experience what? - ANSWER marked fluctuation in BP
10) What are the signs and symptoms of grave's disease? -
ANSWER tachycardia, palpitations, flushed skin, hyperactivity,
exophthalmos
11) What medication is administered 1st in a Graves' disease crisis? -
ANSWER Propranolol (Inderal) - a beta blocker
,12) Why would a patient have numbness or tingling of the face, mouth, or
extremities after a thyroidectomy? - ANSWER signs of hypocalcemia -
due to injury to parathyroid glands
13) What medication do you keep at the bedside after a thyroidectomy? -
ANSWER calcium gluconate
14) How do you assess the thyroid gland? - ANSWER Have the
patient swallow water during inspection and palpation of the gland
15) A patient has a serum sodium level of 152 mEq. The normal hormonal
response to this situation is? - ANSWER release of ADH
16) Following a hypophysectomy for acromegaly, postoperative nursing
care should focus on what? - ANSWER frequent monitoring of serum and
urine osmolality
17) If a patient opens their eyes when the nurse calls their name, this
indicates what? - ANSWER that their reticular activating system (RAS)
functioning is intact. Pt is not fully conscious.
18) A nurse is preparing to assist the provider in testing a client for
myasthenia gravis (MG). Which of the following medications should the
nurse have available to administer? - ANSWER tensilon
, 19) A nurse is taking care of a patient who is tentatively diagnosed with
Gullian-Barré syndrome (GBS) due to progressive paralysis of the lower
extremities. Which of the following patient reports is relevant to the
diagnosis of GBS? - ANSWER history of upper respiratory infection
20) What do you call an unusual sound or smell prior to a seizure? -
ANSWER Aura
21) A patient who experienced a spinal cord injury to the level T% rings
the call bell for assistance. The nurse finds the patient with a flushed head
and neck, complaining of headache, and diaphoretic. The pulse is 47, and the
BP is 220/114. The nurse concludes that immediate treatment is needed for: -
ANSWER autonomic dysreflexia
22) What preparations do you do for a patient who is scheduled for an
EEG the next day? - ANSWER withhold daily dose of seizure drugs and
keep the patient awake during the night
23) When the patient responds by extending the arms and rotating them
externally, how would the nurse document the position? -
ANSWER decerebrate positioning.
24) What are the S & S of increased intracranial pressure -
ANSWER increased temperature, decreased pulse, decreased respirations,
increased blood pressure
25) How do you care for an ileal conduit? - ANSWER cleanse the skin
around the stoma using gentle soap and water, rinse and dry well
