PN COMPREHENSIVE ONLINE PRACTICE FORM A | ALL 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES| LATEST UPDATE (2025/2026) |
ALREADY GRADED A+/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is postoperative following coronary artery
bypass surgery (CABG). Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for as
the highest priority?
A) Infection as evidenced by increased white blood cell count
B) Dysrhythmias as evidenced by electrolyte imbalance
C) Hypertension as evidenced by increased systemic vascular resistance
D) Atelectasis as evidenced by decreased breath sounds at the bases
E) Hemorrhage as evidenced by increased chest tube drainage
Correct Answer: B) Dysrhythmias as evidenced by electrolyte imbalance
Rationale: Following CABG surgery, the heart is highly irritable due to surgical trauma,
hypoxia, and shifting fluids. Electrolyte imbalances, particularly of potassium and
magnesium, are common and directly trigger life-threatening dysrhythmias, such as atrial
fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is pregnant and experiencing morning
sickness. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
A) Eat three large meals a day to keep the stomach full
B) Drink liquids only during mealtimes
C) Eat a snack every 2 to 3 hours
D) Avoid high-protein foods in the evening
E) Drink ice-cold water immediately upon waking
Correct Answer: C) Eat a snack every 2 to 3 hours
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent an
empty stomach, both of which can worsen nausea. The nurse should also suggest
alternating solids and liquids and consuming high-protein snacks to help manage
symptoms.
Question 3
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following a cesarean
birth and has been diagnosed with preeclampsia with severe features. For which of the following
complications is the client at greatest risk?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Seizures
D) Pulmonary embolism
E) Infection of the incision site
Correct Answer: C) Seizures
, 2
Rationale: Preeclampsia with severe features significantly increases the risk of eclampsia,
which is characterized by the onset of seizures. Monitoring neurological status and blood
pressure remains a priority for at least 48 hours postpartum.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a sudden fever,
chills, and muscle pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer an antipyretic and continue the infusion
B) Slow the rate of the transfusion and notify the provider
C) Stop the transfusion
D) Change the IV tubing to a new primary line
E) Check the client's vital signs every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C) Stop the transfusion
Rationale: A fever and chills indicate a possible febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction.
The first action in any suspected transfusion reaction is to stop the infusion immediately to
prevent further exposure to the blood product.
Question 5
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client with suspected opioid toxicity. Which
of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to address?
A) Pinpoint pupils
B) Hypotension
C) Bradypnea
D) Nausea
E) Somnolence
Correct Answer: C) Bradypnea
Rationale: Opioid toxicity causes significant central nervous system depression leading to
respiratory depression (bradypnea). Maintaining the airway and adequate ventilation is the
priority, often requiring the administration of naloxone.
Question 6
A nurse is preparing a client for hemodialysis. Which of the following actions is essential for the
nurse to take regarding the arteriovenous (AV) access site?
A) Apply a warm compress to the site for 20 minutes
B) Scrub the site with povidone-iodine for 5 minutes
C) Auscultate for a bruit and palpate for a thrill
D) Measure the circumference of the arm with the access site
E) Draw a blood sample from the access site for labs
Correct Answer: C) Auscultate for a bruit and palpate for a thrill
Rationale: A bruit (audible swishing) and a thrill (palpable vibration) indicate that the AV
fistula or graft is patent and has sufficient blood flow for the dialysis procedure.
, 3
Question 7
A nurse is monitoring a client who is 12 hours postoperative and received morphine 30 minutes
ago for pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of
the medication?
A) Heart rate 110/min
B) Respiratory rate 10/min
C) Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
D) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
E) Temperature 37.2 C (99 F)
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory rate 10/min
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. A
respiratory rate of 10/min is below the normal range (12-20/min) and indicates a significant
adverse effect of the medication.
Question 8
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the records of four pregnant clients. Which of the
following clients should the nurse see first?
A) A client at 12 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting
B) A client at 28 weeks of gestation with dependent edema of the ankles
C) A client at 36 weeks of gestation who reports painless vaginal bleeding
D) A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a white vaginal discharge
E) A client at 20 weeks of gestation who has not yet felt fetal movement
Correct Answer: C) A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports painless vaginal
bleeding
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a classic sign of placenta
previa, a medical emergency that can lead to massive maternal hemorrhage and fetal
distress.
Question 9
A nurse is working with an interpreter to explain a procedure to a client who speaks a different
language. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure effective
communication?
A) Look at the interpreter while speaking to them
B) Speak in long, detailed sentences to provide full context
C) Ensure the interpreter is culturally compatible with the client
D) Ask the interpreter to use their own judgment in explaining the risks
E) Use a family member as an interpreter if they are available
Correct Answer: C) Ensure the interpreter is culturally compatible with the client
Rationale: Cultural compatibility (considering gender, age, and regional dialect) ensures the
, 4
client feels comfortable and that the nuances of the medical information are transmitted
accurately.
Question 10
A nurse is collecting data from a client at 34 weeks of gestation who has gestational diabetes.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report as an indication of hyperglycemia?
A) Tremors
B) Polyuria
C) Diaphoresis
D) Blurred vision
E) Increased thirst (polydipsia)
Correct Answer: B) Polyuria
Rationale: Classic signs of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) include the "three Ps":
Polyuria (increased urination), Polydipsia (increased thirst), and Polyphagia (increased
hunger). Tremors and diaphoresis are typically signs of hypoglycemia.
Question 11
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client on an inpatient psychiatric unit who is at risk for
suicide. Which of the following actions must the nurse take?
A) Allow the client to keep their personal belongings in a locked drawer
B) Provide the client with privacy during meal times
C) Maintain one-on-one observation of the client at all times
D) Encourage the client to spend time alone in their room for reflection
E) Allow the client to wear their own shoes with laces
Correct Answer: C) Provide one-on-one observation
Rationale: For a client at high risk for suicide, constant one-on-one observation is necessary
to ensure safety. The nurse must also remove all potential ligatures (shoelaces, belts) and
sharp objects.
Question 12
A client in the emergency department presents with agitation, confusion, tachycardia, and muscle
rigidity. The client reports recently starting a new antidepressant. The nurse should suspect which
of the following conditions?
A) Anticholinergic toxicity
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D) Alcohol withdrawal
E) Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: B) Serotonin syndrome
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excess
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES| LATEST UPDATE (2025/2026) |
ALREADY GRADED A+/NEWEST UPDATE!!!
Question 1
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is postoperative following coronary artery
bypass surgery (CABG). Which of the following complications should the nurse monitor for as
the highest priority?
A) Infection as evidenced by increased white blood cell count
B) Dysrhythmias as evidenced by electrolyte imbalance
C) Hypertension as evidenced by increased systemic vascular resistance
D) Atelectasis as evidenced by decreased breath sounds at the bases
E) Hemorrhage as evidenced by increased chest tube drainage
Correct Answer: B) Dysrhythmias as evidenced by electrolyte imbalance
Rationale: Following CABG surgery, the heart is highly irritable due to surgical trauma,
hypoxia, and shifting fluids. Electrolyte imbalances, particularly of potassium and
magnesium, are common and directly trigger life-threatening dysrhythmias, such as atrial
fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
Question 2
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is pregnant and experiencing morning
sickness. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include?
A) Eat three large meals a day to keep the stomach full
B) Drink liquids only during mealtimes
C) Eat a snack every 2 to 3 hours
D) Avoid high-protein foods in the evening
E) Drink ice-cold water immediately upon waking
Correct Answer: C) Eat a snack every 2 to 3 hours
Rationale: Small, frequent meals help maintain stable blood glucose levels and prevent an
empty stomach, both of which can worsen nausea. The nurse should also suggest
alternating solids and liquids and consuming high-protein snacks to help manage
symptoms.
Question 3
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following a cesarean
birth and has been diagnosed with preeclampsia with severe features. For which of the following
complications is the client at greatest risk?
A) Postpartum hemorrhage
B) Deep vein thrombosis
C) Seizures
D) Pulmonary embolism
E) Infection of the incision site
Correct Answer: C) Seizures
, 2
Rationale: Preeclampsia with severe features significantly increases the risk of eclampsia,
which is characterized by the onset of seizures. Monitoring neurological status and blood
pressure remains a priority for at least 48 hours postpartum.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a sudden fever,
chills, and muscle pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer an antipyretic and continue the infusion
B) Slow the rate of the transfusion and notify the provider
C) Stop the transfusion
D) Change the IV tubing to a new primary line
E) Check the client's vital signs every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: C) Stop the transfusion
Rationale: A fever and chills indicate a possible febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction.
The first action in any suspected transfusion reaction is to stop the infusion immediately to
prevent further exposure to the blood product.
Question 5
A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client with suspected opioid toxicity. Which
of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to address?
A) Pinpoint pupils
B) Hypotension
C) Bradypnea
D) Nausea
E) Somnolence
Correct Answer: C) Bradypnea
Rationale: Opioid toxicity causes significant central nervous system depression leading to
respiratory depression (bradypnea). Maintaining the airway and adequate ventilation is the
priority, often requiring the administration of naloxone.
Question 6
A nurse is preparing a client for hemodialysis. Which of the following actions is essential for the
nurse to take regarding the arteriovenous (AV) access site?
A) Apply a warm compress to the site for 20 minutes
B) Scrub the site with povidone-iodine for 5 minutes
C) Auscultate for a bruit and palpate for a thrill
D) Measure the circumference of the arm with the access site
E) Draw a blood sample from the access site for labs
Correct Answer: C) Auscultate for a bruit and palpate for a thrill
Rationale: A bruit (audible swishing) and a thrill (palpable vibration) indicate that the AV
fistula or graft is patent and has sufficient blood flow for the dialysis procedure.
, 3
Question 7
A nurse is monitoring a client who is 12 hours postoperative and received morphine 30 minutes
ago for pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of
the medication?
A) Heart rate 110/min
B) Respiratory rate 10/min
C) Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
D) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
E) Temperature 37.2 C (99 F)
Correct Answer: B) Respiratory rate 10/min
Rationale: Morphine is an opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. A
respiratory rate of 10/min is below the normal range (12-20/min) and indicates a significant
adverse effect of the medication.
Question 8
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the records of four pregnant clients. Which of the
following clients should the nurse see first?
A) A client at 12 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting
B) A client at 28 weeks of gestation with dependent edema of the ankles
C) A client at 36 weeks of gestation who reports painless vaginal bleeding
D) A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a white vaginal discharge
E) A client at 20 weeks of gestation who has not yet felt fetal movement
Correct Answer: C) A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports painless vaginal
bleeding
Rationale: Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a classic sign of placenta
previa, a medical emergency that can lead to massive maternal hemorrhage and fetal
distress.
Question 9
A nurse is working with an interpreter to explain a procedure to a client who speaks a different
language. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure effective
communication?
A) Look at the interpreter while speaking to them
B) Speak in long, detailed sentences to provide full context
C) Ensure the interpreter is culturally compatible with the client
D) Ask the interpreter to use their own judgment in explaining the risks
E) Use a family member as an interpreter if they are available
Correct Answer: C) Ensure the interpreter is culturally compatible with the client
Rationale: Cultural compatibility (considering gender, age, and regional dialect) ensures the
, 4
client feels comfortable and that the nuances of the medical information are transmitted
accurately.
Question 10
A nurse is collecting data from a client at 34 weeks of gestation who has gestational diabetes.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report as an indication of hyperglycemia?
A) Tremors
B) Polyuria
C) Diaphoresis
D) Blurred vision
E) Increased thirst (polydipsia)
Correct Answer: B) Polyuria
Rationale: Classic signs of hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) include the "three Ps":
Polyuria (increased urination), Polydipsia (increased thirst), and Polyphagia (increased
hunger). Tremors and diaphoresis are typically signs of hypoglycemia.
Question 11
A nurse is assisting with the care of a client on an inpatient psychiatric unit who is at risk for
suicide. Which of the following actions must the nurse take?
A) Allow the client to keep their personal belongings in a locked drawer
B) Provide the client with privacy during meal times
C) Maintain one-on-one observation of the client at all times
D) Encourage the client to spend time alone in their room for reflection
E) Allow the client to wear their own shoes with laces
Correct Answer: C) Provide one-on-one observation
Rationale: For a client at high risk for suicide, constant one-on-one observation is necessary
to ensure safety. The nurse must also remove all potential ligatures (shoelaces, belts) and
sharp objects.
Question 12
A client in the emergency department presents with agitation, confusion, tachycardia, and muscle
rigidity. The client reports recently starting a new antidepressant. The nurse should suspect which
of the following conditions?
A) Anticholinergic toxicity
B) Serotonin syndrome
C) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D) Alcohol withdrawal
E) Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: B) Serotonin syndrome
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by excess
