NR 547 CEA EXAM CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY
| COMPREHENSIVE PRE-CLINICAL DIAGNOSTIC
EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1. A 64-year-old patient with hypertension presents with exertional chest pain
relieved by rest. Which finding most strongly supports a diagnosis of stable
angina?
A. ST elevation on ECG
B. Chest pain lasting longer than 30 minutes
C. Pain precipitated by exertion and relieved by nitroglycerin
D. Elevated troponin levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain triggered by
exertion or stress and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. ST elevation and elevated
troponins suggest myocardial infarction.
2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has pursed-lip
breathing and prolonged expiration. These findings primarily indicate:
A. Increased airway resistance
B. Reduced lung compliance
C. Impaired gas diffusion
D. Decreased tidal volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent airway collapse and reduces air
trapping caused by increased airway resistance.
,3. A patient reports epigastric pain that improves with meals. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Cholelithiasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically improves with food, whereas gastric
ulcer pain worsens after eating.
4. Which hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?
A. Glucagon
B. Cortisol
C. Insulin
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin promotes glucose uptake into cells and decreases blood glucose
levels.
5. A patient presents with unilateral facial droop and inability to close one eye.
These findings are most consistent with:
A. Stroke
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Bell’s palsy
D. Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bell’s palsy involves acute unilateral facial nerve paralysis affecting
the entire side of the face.
,6. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is most closely associated with major
depressive disorder?
A. Increased dopamine
B. Decreased serotonin
C. Increased acetylcholine
D. Decreased GABA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reduced serotonin levels are strongly associated with depressive
symptoms.
7. A patient with iron-deficiency anemia is most likely to have which
laboratory finding?
A. Elevated ferritin
B. Increased mean corpuscular volume
C. Decreased hemoglobin
D. Elevated reticulocyte count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Iron-deficiency anemia results in reduced hemoglobin due to impaired
erythropoiesis.
8. Which symptom is most indicative of acute kidney injury?
A. Polyuria
B. Nocturia
C. Sudden decrease in urine output
D. Increased thirst
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute kidney injury commonly presents with oliguria due to abrupt
decline in renal function.
, 9. A patient presents with fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia. Which
diagnosis is most concerning?
A. Migraine
B. Encephalitis
C. Meningitis
D. Sinusitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia are classic signs of meningitis
and require immediate evaluation.
10. A painless chancre on the genitalia is characteristic of which infection?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary syphilis presents with a painless chancre at the site of
infection.
11. Which skin lesion is most suspicious for melanoma?
A. Symmetric nevus
B. Uniformly pigmented mole
C. Asymmetric lesion with irregular borders
D. Flesh-colored papule
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Asymmetry and irregular borders are hallmark warning signs of
melanoma.
| COMPREHENSIVE PRE-CLINICAL DIAGNOSTIC
EXAM QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS ON THE FIRST ATTEMPT
1. A 64-year-old patient with hypertension presents with exertional chest pain
relieved by rest. Which finding most strongly supports a diagnosis of stable
angina?
A. ST elevation on ECG
B. Chest pain lasting longer than 30 minutes
C. Pain precipitated by exertion and relieved by nitroglycerin
D. Elevated troponin levels
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stable angina is characterized by predictable chest pain triggered by
exertion or stress and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. ST elevation and elevated
troponins suggest myocardial infarction.
2. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has pursed-lip
breathing and prolonged expiration. These findings primarily indicate:
A. Increased airway resistance
B. Reduced lung compliance
C. Impaired gas diffusion
D. Decreased tidal volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps prevent airway collapse and reduces air
trapping caused by increased airway resistance.
,3. A patient reports epigastric pain that improves with meals. Which
condition is most likely?
A. Gastric ulcer
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Acute pancreatitis
D. Cholelithiasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Duodenal ulcer pain typically improves with food, whereas gastric
ulcer pain worsens after eating.
4. Which hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?
A. Glucagon
B. Cortisol
C. Insulin
D. Epinephrine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin promotes glucose uptake into cells and decreases blood glucose
levels.
5. A patient presents with unilateral facial droop and inability to close one eye.
These findings are most consistent with:
A. Stroke
B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Bell’s palsy
D. Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bell’s palsy involves acute unilateral facial nerve paralysis affecting
the entire side of the face.
,6. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is most closely associated with major
depressive disorder?
A. Increased dopamine
B. Decreased serotonin
C. Increased acetylcholine
D. Decreased GABA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Reduced serotonin levels are strongly associated with depressive
symptoms.
7. A patient with iron-deficiency anemia is most likely to have which
laboratory finding?
A. Elevated ferritin
B. Increased mean corpuscular volume
C. Decreased hemoglobin
D. Elevated reticulocyte count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Iron-deficiency anemia results in reduced hemoglobin due to impaired
erythropoiesis.
8. Which symptom is most indicative of acute kidney injury?
A. Polyuria
B. Nocturia
C. Sudden decrease in urine output
D. Increased thirst
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Acute kidney injury commonly presents with oliguria due to abrupt
decline in renal function.
, 9. A patient presents with fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia. Which
diagnosis is most concerning?
A. Migraine
B. Encephalitis
C. Meningitis
D. Sinusitis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fever, neck stiffness, and photophobia are classic signs of meningitis
and require immediate evaluation.
10. A painless chancre on the genitalia is characteristic of which infection?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Chlamydia
C. Syphilis
D. Herpes simplex virus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Primary syphilis presents with a painless chancre at the site of
infection.
11. Which skin lesion is most suspicious for melanoma?
A. Symmetric nevus
B. Uniformly pigmented mole
C. Asymmetric lesion with irregular borders
D. Flesh-colored papule
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Asymmetry and irregular borders are hallmark warning signs of
melanoma.
