[HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
**Question 1. Which of the following is the most common causative organism of acute otitis
media in children?**
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
Answer: B
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae accounts for roughly 30‑40 % of acute otitis media
episodes in the pediatric population, making it the leading pathogen.
**Question 2. A 28‑year‑old woman presents with painful swelling of the external auditory
canal after swimming. The most likely diagnosis is:**
A) Otitis media with effusion
B) Otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Otosclerosis
Answer: B
Explanation: Exposure to water creates a moist environment that predisposes to bacterial or
fungal infection of the canal, characteristic of otitis externa.
**Question 3. The hallmark audiometric finding in otosclerosis is:**
A) Conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch at 2000 Hz
B) Sensorineural loss with a notch at 4000 Hz
C) Mixed loss with flat tympanogram
D) Normal bone conduction thresholds
, [HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
Answer: A
Explanation: Otosclerosis produces a conductive deficit and a specific dip (Carhart notch) at
2000 Hz on bone‑conduction testing.
**Question 4. In the Epley maneuver for BPPV, the canal most commonly treated is the:**
A) Anterior semicircular canal
B) Posterior semicircular canal
C) Lateral semicircular canal
D) Cochlear duct
Answer: B
Explanation: The posterior canal is involved in >90 % of idiopathic BPPV cases; the Epley
maneuver repositions otoconia within this canal.
**Question 5. Which of the following is the first‑line pharmacologic treatment for sudden
sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL)?**
A) Oral amoxicillin
B) Intratympanic dexamethasone
C) High‑dose oral prednisone
D) Topical ciprofloxacin drops
Answer: C
Explanation: High‑dose systemic steroids are the standard initial therapy for SSNHL to reduce
inflammation and improve hearing outcomes.
**Question 6. The House‑Brackmann grade VI facial nerve palsy indicates:**
A) Slight weakness, normal synkinesis
, [HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
B) Moderate weakness, some contracture
C) Complete paralysis, no movement
D) Normal function, slight asymmetry
Answer: C
Explanation: Grade VI denotes total loss of facial movement on the affected side with no
voluntary motion.
**Question 7. A patient with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) presents with a dry
perforation and persistent otorrhea. The most appropriate next step is:**
A) Immediate mastoidectomy
B) Topical antibiotic ear drops
C) Systemic quinolone therapy
D) Observation only
Answer: B
Explanation: Topical antibiotics are first‑line for managing otorrhea in CSOM with a dry
perforation; surgery is reserved for complications or failure.
**Question 8. Which of the following is a common cause of otitis media with effusion in
toddlers?**
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Adenoid hypertrophy
C) Nasal polyps
D) Laryngeal papillomatosis
Answer: B
, [HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
Explanation: Enlarged adenoids can obstruct eustachian tube drainage, leading to fluid
accumulation (OME) in the middle ear.
**Question 9. The most reliable clinical test for diagnosing Meniere’s disease is:**
A) Dix‑Hallpike maneuver
B) Audiogram showing low‑frequency sensorineural loss
C) Tympanometry type A
D) Laryngoscopy
Answer: B
Explanation: Early Meniere’s disease produces low‑frequency sensorineural hearing loss on
audiometry, often fluctuating.
**Question 10. In the management of a perichondritis of the auricle, the drug of choice is:**
A) Oral penicillin V
B) Topical clotrimazole cream
C) Oral fluoroquinolone
D) Intravenous vancomycin
Answer: C
Explanation: Perichondritis frequently involves Pseudomonas aeruginosa; oral fluoroquinolones
provide effective coverage.
**Question 11. Which of the following best describes the nasal cycle?**
A) Alternating congestion and decongestion of the nasal turbinates
B) Continuous mucus production throughout the day
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
**Question 1. Which of the following is the most common causative organism of acute otitis
media in children?**
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
Answer: B
Explanation: Streptococcus pneumoniae accounts for roughly 30‑40 % of acute otitis media
episodes in the pediatric population, making it the leading pathogen.
**Question 2. A 28‑year‑old woman presents with painful swelling of the external auditory
canal after swimming. The most likely diagnosis is:**
A) Otitis media with effusion
B) Otitis externa (swimmer’s ear)
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Otosclerosis
Answer: B
Explanation: Exposure to water creates a moist environment that predisposes to bacterial or
fungal infection of the canal, characteristic of otitis externa.
**Question 3. The hallmark audiometric finding in otosclerosis is:**
A) Conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch at 2000 Hz
B) Sensorineural loss with a notch at 4000 Hz
C) Mixed loss with flat tympanogram
D) Normal bone conduction thresholds
, [HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
Answer: A
Explanation: Otosclerosis produces a conductive deficit and a specific dip (Carhart notch) at
2000 Hz on bone‑conduction testing.
**Question 4. In the Epley maneuver for BPPV, the canal most commonly treated is the:**
A) Anterior semicircular canal
B) Posterior semicircular canal
C) Lateral semicircular canal
D) Cochlear duct
Answer: B
Explanation: The posterior canal is involved in >90 % of idiopathic BPPV cases; the Epley
maneuver repositions otoconia within this canal.
**Question 5. Which of the following is the first‑line pharmacologic treatment for sudden
sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL)?**
A) Oral amoxicillin
B) Intratympanic dexamethasone
C) High‑dose oral prednisone
D) Topical ciprofloxacin drops
Answer: C
Explanation: High‑dose systemic steroids are the standard initial therapy for SSNHL to reduce
inflammation and improve hearing outcomes.
**Question 6. The House‑Brackmann grade VI facial nerve palsy indicates:**
A) Slight weakness, normal synkinesis
, [HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
B) Moderate weakness, some contracture
C) Complete paralysis, no movement
D) Normal function, slight asymmetry
Answer: C
Explanation: Grade VI denotes total loss of facial movement on the affected side with no
voluntary motion.
**Question 7. A patient with chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM) presents with a dry
perforation and persistent otorrhea. The most appropriate next step is:**
A) Immediate mastoidectomy
B) Topical antibiotic ear drops
C) Systemic quinolone therapy
D) Observation only
Answer: B
Explanation: Topical antibiotics are first‑line for managing otorrhea in CSOM with a dry
perforation; surgery is reserved for complications or failure.
**Question 8. Which of the following is a common cause of otitis media with effusion in
toddlers?**
A) Allergic rhinitis
B) Adenoid hypertrophy
C) Nasal polyps
D) Laryngeal papillomatosis
Answer: B
, [HAADGPDentist] HAAD GP Dentist DOH
Licensureination for GP Dentist
Certification Review Guide
Explanation: Enlarged adenoids can obstruct eustachian tube drainage, leading to fluid
accumulation (OME) in the middle ear.
**Question 9. The most reliable clinical test for diagnosing Meniere’s disease is:**
A) Dix‑Hallpike maneuver
B) Audiogram showing low‑frequency sensorineural loss
C) Tympanometry type A
D) Laryngoscopy
Answer: B
Explanation: Early Meniere’s disease produces low‑frequency sensorineural hearing loss on
audiometry, often fluctuating.
**Question 10. In the management of a perichondritis of the auricle, the drug of choice is:**
A) Oral penicillin V
B) Topical clotrimazole cream
C) Oral fluoroquinolone
D) Intravenous vancomycin
Answer: C
Explanation: Perichondritis frequently involves Pseudomonas aeruginosa; oral fluoroquinolones
provide effective coverage.
**Question 11. Which of the following best describes the nasal cycle?**
A) Alternating congestion and decongestion of the nasal turbinates
B) Continuous mucus production throughout the day
