Exam Guide
Question 1. **What term describes the pool of capital that limited partners contribute to a
private equity fund?** A) General Partnership Capital B) Committed Capital C) Management Fee
Reserve D) Carried Interest
Answer: B
Explanation: Limited partners pledge “committed capital” to a PE fund, which the GP can draw
down over the fund’s life.
Question 2. **In a venture capital (VC) investment, which role typically leads the due‑diligence
process and negotiates term sheets?** A) Co‑investor B) Limited Partner C) Lead Investor D)
Portfolio Manager
Answer: C
Explanation: The lead investor originates the deal, sets terms, and often syndicates the round to
other investors.
Question 3. **Growth equity differs from traditional VC primarily because it targets companies
that are:** A) Pre‑revenue startups B) Early‑stage with high cash burn C) Mature with proven
revenue streams D) In liquidation
Answer: C
Explanation: Growth equity invests in later‑stage firms that have stable cash flows but need
capital to accelerate expansion.
Question 4. **Which of the following is a hallmark characteristic of a leveraged buyout
(LBO)?** A) No debt financing B) High equity contribution C) Significant use of debt to fund the
acquisition D) Immediate public offering
Answer: C
Explanation: LBOs rely heavily on debt, using the target’s cash flows to service and repay that
debt.
, [HBSAI] HBS ALTERNATIVE INVESTMENTS Certification
Exam Guide
Question 5. **When calculating Enterprise Value (EV), which of the following items is added to
market capitalization?** A) Cash and cash equivalents B) Debt and minority interest C)
Operating expenses D) Dividend payments
Answer: B
Explanation: EV = Market Cap + Debt + Minority Interest – Cash, reflecting the total value of the
firm’s operating assets.
Question 6. **In private debt, the “senior secured” position means the lender has:** A)
Sub‑ordination to equity holders B) Equal claim with mezzanine lenders C) First‑lien claim on
collateral D) No claim on assets
Answer: C
Explanation: Senior secured debt is first in line to be repaid from the pledged collateral in a
default scenario.
Question 7. **The “Loan‑to‑Own” strategy in distressed investing aims to:** A) Flip the loan for
a quick profit B) Convert debt into equity ownership C) Reduce loan principal through
negotiations D) Provide unsecured financing to a distressed firm
Answer: B
Explanation: Investors purchase distressed debt with the intention of converting it into equity,
thereby gaining control of the company.
Question 8. **Which metric is most commonly used to assess the time‑weighted performance
of a private equity fund?** A) Internal Rate of Return (IRR) B) Multiple of Invested Capital
(MOIC) C) Time‑Weighted Return (TWR) D) Net Asset Value (NAV)
Answer: C
Explanation: TWR eliminates the impact of cash‑flow timing, making it suitable for comparing
fund performance.
, [HBSAI] HBS ALTERNATIVE INVESTMENTS Certification
Exam Guide
Question 9. **In the LBO model, the “debt‑paydown schedule” primarily reflects:** A) The
firm’s operating margin B) The amount of equity contributed C) The projected reduction of
principal over time D) The cost of capital for new projects
Answer: C
Explanation: The schedule shows how cash flows are used to retire debt principal throughout
the investment horizon.
Question 10. **PE secondaries provide liquidity to limited partners by:** A) Issuing new shares
in the fund B) Selling their existing fund interests to other investors C) Borrowing against future
cash flows D) Converting equity to debt
Answer: B
Explanation: Secondary transactions involve the sale of a limited partner’s stake in a PE fund to
a new investor.
Question 11. **Which skill is most critical for a distressed‑debt analyst compared with a
traditional PE analyst?** A) Modeling high‑growth revenue streams B) Negotiating turnaround
operational plans C) Conducting forensic financial analysis of bankrupt entities D) Structuring
carry‑based compensation
Answer: C
Explanation: Distressed analysts must dissect bankruptcy filings, covenant structures, and
liquidation priorities.
Question 12. **Alpha in hedge fund performance measurement represents:** A) Systematic
market risk B) The fund’s beta exposure C) Excess return over a benchmark D) The fund’s fee
structure
Answer: C
Explanation: Alpha quantifies the portion of return not explained by market movements,
indicating manager skill.
, [HBSAI] HBS ALTERNATIVE INVESTMENTS Certification
Exam Guide
Question 13. **A hedge fund that charges “2 and 20” is collecting:** A) 2% management fee
and 20% performance fee B) 20% management fee and 2% performance fee C) 2% performance
fee only D) 20% management fee only
Answer: A
Explanation: “2 and 20” denotes a 2% assets‑under‑management fee plus 20% of any profits
earned.
Question 14. **In a global macro strategy, a manager is most likely to base investment decisions
on:** A) Company earnings releases B) Geopolitical events and macroeconomic data C)
Short‑term price anomalies D) Private equity exit multiples
Answer: B
Explanation: Global macro funds trade based on macro‑level trends such as interest rates,
currency movements, and political developments.
Question 15. **Merger arbitrage typically profits from:** A) Long‑term equity appreciation B)
Price differentials between a target’s stock and the announced acquisition price C) Dividend
capture strategies D) Currency carry trades
Answer: B
Explanation: Merger arbitrageurs buy the target’s shares and sell the acquirer’s shares (or
vice‑versa) to capture the spread when the deal closes.
Question 16. **Activist investors usually seek to:** A) Remain passive shareholders B) Influence
corporate governance and strategy C) Provide short‑term liquidity D) Hedge against market risk
Answer: B
Explanation: Activists acquire significant stakes to push for changes such as board seats, asset
sales, or strategic pivots.
Question 17. **Quantitative hedge funds primarily rely on:** A) Fundamental analysis of
balance sheets B) Human intuition and market sentiment C) Algorithmic models and statistical
data D) Political lobbying