106 Inspired) Test Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales
2026/2027 Q&A | Instant Download Pdf
1.
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive fatigue and conjunctival pallor.
Labs show MCV 72 fL, Hb 9.8 g/dL, ferritin low, TIBC high.
What is the most likely cause?
• A. Thalassemia minor
• B. Iron deficiency anemia
• C. Anemia of chronic disease
• D. Lead poisoning
Rationale: Microcytic anemia with low ferritin and high TIBC is classic for iron
deficiency.
2.
A 25-year-old woman develops sudden pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea after
starting oral contraceptives. HR 120, O2 sat 88%. CT angiography shows filling
defect in pulmonary arteries.
Next best step?
• A. Aspirin
• B. Anticoagulation with heparin
• C. IVC filter
, • D. Thrombolysis
Rationale: Stable PE requires anticoagulation first; thrombolysis reserved for
massive PE with hemodynamic instability.
3.
A 60-year-old man has exertional chest pain relieved by rest. Stress test shows ST
depressions.
What is the most appropriate long-term therapy to reduce mortality?
• A. Nitroglycerin as needed
• B. Beta blocker
• C. Calcium channel blocker
• D. Aspirin only
Rationale: Beta blockers improve survival in stable angina by decreasing
myocardial oxygen demand.
4.
A 7-year-old boy has recurrent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopenia.
Which condition is most likely?
• A. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
• B. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
• C. DiGeorge syndrome
• D. SCID
Rationale: Triad = immunodeficiency, eczema, thrombocytopenia.
5.
,A 30-year-old man with HIV presents with headache and fever. CSF: opening
pressure high, India ink prep positive.
Most appropriate initial treatment?
• A. Fluconazole oral
• B. Amphotericin B + flucytosine
• C. TMP-SMX
• D. Acyclovir
Rationale: Cryptococcus meningitis is treated initially with amphotericin B and
flucytosine.
6.
A 55-year-old man with hypertension presents with tearing chest pain radiating to
the back. BP 180/100, asymmetric pulses.
Best initial diagnostic test?
• A. Chest X-ray
• B. CT angiography of chest/abdomen
• C. Cardiac enzymes
• D. Echocardiogram
Rationale: CTA is the best initial test for aortic dissection (if stable). TEE if
unstable.
7.
A 28-year-old woman develops symmetric morning joint stiffness >1 hour, sparing
DIP joints.
Which test is most specific?
• A. ANA
• B. Rheumatoid factor
, • C. Anti-CCP antibody
• D. ESR
Rationale: Anti-CCP is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis.
8.
A 40-year-old alcoholic has confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus.
Which vitamin deficiency is most likely?
• A. Niacin
• B. Thiamine
• C. Vitamin B12
• D. Folate
Rationale: Wernicke encephalopathy = thiamine deficiency.
9.
A 16-year-old girl presents with abdominal pain, amenorrhea, and a blue bulging
mass at the vaginal introitus.
Diagnosis?
• A. Ovarian torsion
• B. Imperforate hymen
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Ectopic pregnancy
Rationale: Imperforate hymen → hematocolpos → bulging bluish mass.
10.