EXPERT FIELD MEDICAL BADGE
CERTIFICATION PAPER 2026 QUESTIONS
WITH SOLUTIONS GRADED A+
>> The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine
Anterior- Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay
usually with a(n) ______________
Answer: portable x ray machine
>> T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical
spine radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE
is unavailable.
Answer: False
>> What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography
scanner?
Answer: Role 3
>> What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine?
Answer: Role 2
>> Members of the trauma team should have ______ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety.
Answer: lead
>> Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the
patient's condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short
distance away from the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is _____.
Answer: 6 feet
,>> While a FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable
blunt trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and
Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for _______.
Answer: Focused Abdominal Sonographic Exam
>> FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of:
________
Answer: 98%
>> T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury
and mesenteric injury.
Answer: False: it is the DPL (diagnostic peritoneal lavage)
>> T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists,
surgeons, and emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in
the emergency department on a hand held portable device.
Answer: True
>> A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most
commonly using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______ probe.
Answer: US
>> The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
______ in certain areas of the body.
Answer: free intraperitoneal fluid
>> When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right
upper quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs?
Answer: Liver and Kidney
,>> When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs?
Answer: Spleen and Kidney
>> An 18g ________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV
access.
Answer: Antecubital
>> T/F: The goal of computed tomography contrast injection is to provide
concurrent solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary
arterial.
Answer: True
>> T/F: When performing computed tomography scan on a military working
dog, utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult setting to include the doses
and rates of contrast administration.
Answer: False: In an emergency situation, base it off the pediatric settings
not the adult settings.
>> T/F All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images
sent electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the
patient as a backup.
Answer: True
>> T/F Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the
acute management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during
Operation Enduring Freedom.
Answer: False: MRI has been deployed to theater in the past but its utility
has not been established
>> All Trauma patients arriving as a Role ____ will receive proper and
expeditious radiologic screening of injuries.
, Answer: Role 3
>> T/F Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma.
Answer: False: they are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma
>> The symptoms of acoustic trauma are:
Answer: hearing loss, tinnitus, aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with
loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy
background, and vertigo
>> Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is
either ______ or _______.
Answer: Temporary (TTS) or Permanent ( PTS)
>> The ear, specifically the ______ is the most sensitive organ to primary blast
injury.
Answer: Tympanic membrane
>> T/F The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater
the likelihood os spontaneous closure.
Answer: True
>> The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do
so within the first ______ after injury.
Answer: 8 weeks
>> Acute management on intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide
objective documentation of facial movement using the _______ scale.
Answer: House-Brackmann Grading Scale
CERTIFICATION PAPER 2026 QUESTIONS
WITH SOLUTIONS GRADED A+
>> The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine
Anterior- Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay
usually with a(n) ______________
Answer: portable x ray machine
>> T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical
spine radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE
is unavailable.
Answer: False
>> What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography
scanner?
Answer: Role 3
>> What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine?
Answer: Role 2
>> Members of the trauma team should have ______ aprons and thyroid shields
available near the trauma bay for radiation safety.
Answer: lead
>> Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the
patient's condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short
distance away from the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is _____.
Answer: 6 feet
,>> While a FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable
blunt trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and
Emergency Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for _______.
Answer: Focused Abdominal Sonographic Exam
>> FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of:
________
Answer: 98%
>> T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury
and mesenteric injury.
Answer: False: it is the DPL (diagnostic peritoneal lavage)
>> T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists,
surgeons, and emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in
the emergency department on a hand held portable device.
Answer: True
>> A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most
commonly using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______ probe.
Answer: US
>> The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
______ in certain areas of the body.
Answer: free intraperitoneal fluid
>> When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right
upper quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs?
Answer: Liver and Kidney
,>> When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs?
Answer: Spleen and Kidney
>> An 18g ________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV
access.
Answer: Antecubital
>> T/F: The goal of computed tomography contrast injection is to provide
concurrent solid organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary
arterial.
Answer: True
>> T/F: When performing computed tomography scan on a military working
dog, utilize a scanning protocol based on the adult setting to include the doses
and rates of contrast administration.
Answer: False: In an emergency situation, base it off the pediatric settings
not the adult settings.
>> T/F All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images
sent electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the
patient as a backup.
Answer: True
>> T/F Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the
acute management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during
Operation Enduring Freedom.
Answer: False: MRI has been deployed to theater in the past but its utility
has not been established
>> All Trauma patients arriving as a Role ____ will receive proper and
expeditious radiologic screening of injuries.
, Answer: Role 3
>> T/F Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma.
Answer: False: they are at risk for both aural and acoustic trauma
>> The symptoms of acoustic trauma are:
Answer: hearing loss, tinnitus, aural fullness, recruitment (ear pain with
loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty hearing in a noisy
background, and vertigo
>> Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is
either ______ or _______.
Answer: Temporary (TTS) or Permanent ( PTS)
>> The ear, specifically the ______ is the most sensitive organ to primary blast
injury.
Answer: Tympanic membrane
>> T/F The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater
the likelihood os spontaneous closure.
Answer: True
>> The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do
so within the first ______ after injury.
Answer: 8 weeks
>> Acute management on intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide
objective documentation of facial movement using the _______ scale.
Answer: House-Brackmann Grading Scale
