NR 511 Midterm Test Bank LATEST 3 VERSIONS
GRADED A+ DESIGNED TO REFLECT THE CURRENT
EXAM AND SUPPORT YOUR SUCCESS.
A 7-year-old male presents with his mother to the urgent care clinic
complaining of abdominal pain. He started to complain of pain prior
to going to bed; however, it has gotten progressively worse and is
now preventing him from sleeping. He is nauseous but hasn't
vomited and didn't eat dinner due to the pain. The patient appears
pale and is complaining of right-sided abdominal pain. His vitals are
as follows: blood pressure 130/85, pulse 120, temperature 100.5°F,
pulse oximetry 98% on room air. On physical exam he is tender in
the right lower quadrant. His complete blood count (CBC) shows a
white blood cell count (WBC) of 17.0. What is the patient's likely
diagnosis?
1.Appendicitis.
2.Cholecystitis.
3.Constipation.
4.Gastroenteritis . - correct answer✔✔ appendicitis
rationale: This is the clinical scenario typical for appendicitis
What is the recommended treatment to eradicate a Helicobacter
pylori infection?
1.Ranitidine, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
,2.Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks.
3.Bismuth, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
4.Bismuth, doxycycline, metronidazole, and ranitidine. . - correct
answer✔✔ Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks
rationale: This is the recommended treatment to eradicate H pylori.
A 50-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic complaining
of left lower quadrant pain. She has associated nausea and vomiting,
and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 102.5°F, pulse 110,
blood pressure 150/90, pulse oximetry 99% on room air. What is
the best test to evaluate this patient?
1.Sigmoidoscopy.
2.Abdominal series.
3.Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast.
4.Abdominal ultrasound. . - correct answer✔✔ Computed
tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast
rationale: This is the best diagnostic choice. While diverticulitis is
likely the cause of the patient's symptoms, a CT of the abdomen
would show if the patient has any gynecologic etiology (such as
ovarian cyst or tumor) of this pain
Which gastrointestinal disease below could theoretically be
completely eradicated with a total colectomy?
,1.Crohn's disease.
2.Irritable bowel syndrome.
3.Ulcerative colitis.
4.Celiac disease . - correct answer✔✔ Ulcerative Colitis
rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a disease only of the colon. While it is
not the first treatment choice, total colectomy is a treatment option
that can completely resolve this problem
The screening guidelines for colon cancer recommend which of the
following for the general population?
1.Colonoscopy starting at age 50.
2.Colonoscopy starting at age 45.
3.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 50.
4.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 45. .
- correct answer✔✔ Colonoscopy after age 50
rationale: This is the recommended age to start colonoscopic
examination in someone with a low risk for colon cancer
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholecystitis?
1.Female gender.
2.Obesity.
3.Sickle cell anemia.
, 4.Younger age . - correct answer✔✔ Younger age
rationale: The risk of cholecystitis actually increases with age
A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for
routine reevaluation for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
She has been treated with diet modifications and 6 weeks of
omeprazole without improvement of her symptoms. What is the
next step in management of this patient's GERD?
1.Order an endoscopy.
2.Order a Helicobacter pylori blood test.
3.Try adding ranitidine to the patient's regimen.
4.Try adding bismuth to the patient's regimen. . - correct answer✔✔
Order an endoscopy
rationale: This is the next step in treatment in order to evaluate the
etiology of the patient's GERD and consider biopsy if necessary
A 25-year-old male presents with "bleeding in my eye" for 1 day. He
awoke this morning with a dark area of redness in his eye. He has no
visual loss or changes. He denies constitutional symptoms, pruritus,
drainage, or recent trauma. The redness presents on physical exam
as a dark red area in the patient's sclera of the right eye only and
takes up less than 50% of the eye. The patient's remaining sclera is
clear and white. He also notes he was drinking alcohol last night and
vomited afterward. What is the best treatment?
GRADED A+ DESIGNED TO REFLECT THE CURRENT
EXAM AND SUPPORT YOUR SUCCESS.
A 7-year-old male presents with his mother to the urgent care clinic
complaining of abdominal pain. He started to complain of pain prior
to going to bed; however, it has gotten progressively worse and is
now preventing him from sleeping. He is nauseous but hasn't
vomited and didn't eat dinner due to the pain. The patient appears
pale and is complaining of right-sided abdominal pain. His vitals are
as follows: blood pressure 130/85, pulse 120, temperature 100.5°F,
pulse oximetry 98% on room air. On physical exam he is tender in
the right lower quadrant. His complete blood count (CBC) shows a
white blood cell count (WBC) of 17.0. What is the patient's likely
diagnosis?
1.Appendicitis.
2.Cholecystitis.
3.Constipation.
4.Gastroenteritis . - correct answer✔✔ appendicitis
rationale: This is the clinical scenario typical for appendicitis
What is the recommended treatment to eradicate a Helicobacter
pylori infection?
1.Ranitidine, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
,2.Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks.
3.Bismuth, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin for 2 weeks.
4.Bismuth, doxycycline, metronidazole, and ranitidine. . - correct
answer✔✔ Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and omeprazole for 2 weeks
rationale: This is the recommended treatment to eradicate H pylori.
A 50-year-old female presents to the urgent care clinic complaining
of left lower quadrant pain. She has associated nausea and vomiting,
and her vital signs are as follows: temperature 102.5°F, pulse 110,
blood pressure 150/90, pulse oximetry 99% on room air. What is
the best test to evaluate this patient?
1.Sigmoidoscopy.
2.Abdominal series.
3.Computed tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast.
4.Abdominal ultrasound. . - correct answer✔✔ Computed
tomography (CT) scan with oral contrast
rationale: This is the best diagnostic choice. While diverticulitis is
likely the cause of the patient's symptoms, a CT of the abdomen
would show if the patient has any gynecologic etiology (such as
ovarian cyst or tumor) of this pain
Which gastrointestinal disease below could theoretically be
completely eradicated with a total colectomy?
,1.Crohn's disease.
2.Irritable bowel syndrome.
3.Ulcerative colitis.
4.Celiac disease . - correct answer✔✔ Ulcerative Colitis
rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a disease only of the colon. While it is
not the first treatment choice, total colectomy is a treatment option
that can completely resolve this problem
The screening guidelines for colon cancer recommend which of the
following for the general population?
1.Colonoscopy starting at age 50.
2.Colonoscopy starting at age 45.
3.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 50.
4.Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) and rectal exam starting at age 45. .
- correct answer✔✔ Colonoscopy after age 50
rationale: This is the recommended age to start colonoscopic
examination in someone with a low risk for colon cancer
Which of the following is not a risk factor for cholecystitis?
1.Female gender.
2.Obesity.
3.Sickle cell anemia.
, 4.Younger age . - correct answer✔✔ Younger age
rationale: The risk of cholecystitis actually increases with age
A 54-year-old female presents to your primary care office for
routine reevaluation for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
She has been treated with diet modifications and 6 weeks of
omeprazole without improvement of her symptoms. What is the
next step in management of this patient's GERD?
1.Order an endoscopy.
2.Order a Helicobacter pylori blood test.
3.Try adding ranitidine to the patient's regimen.
4.Try adding bismuth to the patient's regimen. . - correct answer✔✔
Order an endoscopy
rationale: This is the next step in treatment in order to evaluate the
etiology of the patient's GERD and consider biopsy if necessary
A 25-year-old male presents with "bleeding in my eye" for 1 day. He
awoke this morning with a dark area of redness in his eye. He has no
visual loss or changes. He denies constitutional symptoms, pruritus,
drainage, or recent trauma. The redness presents on physical exam
as a dark red area in the patient's sclera of the right eye only and
takes up less than 50% of the eye. The patient's remaining sclera is
clear and white. He also notes he was drinking alcohol last night and
vomited afterward. What is the best treatment?
