ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
ANCC MEDSURG-BC LIPPINCOTT'S POST TEST PREP TEST BANK
LATEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS- ACE YOUR EXAM
A pt. who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive begins zidovudine
therapy. Which statement best describes the actions of this drug?
A. It eliminates the virus that causes AIDS.
B. It interferes with viral replications
C. It stimulates the immune system
D. It clears up skin lessions - Correct Answer-B. Ziduvudine inhibits
deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis within the virus that causes AIDS. interfering with
viral replications.
During routine hygiene care for a patient with AIDS, a nurse following standard
precautions would take which actions?
A. Use reverse isolation
B. Place the pt. in a private room
C. Put on mask, gloves, and a gown
D. Wear gloves when giving mouth care - Correct Answer-D. Standard precautions
stipulate that a health care worker who anticipates coming into contact with a pt.
blood or body fluid must wear gloves; this protects the health care worker. OPT A
is incorrect because reverse isolation is used to protect the patient from the health
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, ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
care worker. OPT B is incorrect because a private room doesn't provide a method
of barrier protections, which is needed for a standard precautions. OPT C is
incorrect because a mask and gloves are needed only for anticipated contact with
airborne droplets of blood or body fluids; a gown is needed only for anticipated
contact with splashes or blood or body fluid.
When assessing the skin of a pt. with deep partial-thickness burns, what would
the nurse expect to find?
A. Dry, pale areas with no blister formation
B. Blister of varying sizes, with areas of charred tissue
C. Cherry-red areas with weeping blister
D. Pearly-white areas with charred tissue - Correct Answer-C. In partial-thickness
burns, skin color varies from pink to cherry-red. Deep second-degree burns appear
cherry-red and may have blisters that ooze fluid. OPT A and D are incorrect
because they describe full-thickness burns. Opt B is incorrect because it describes
superficial partial-thickness burns.
A pt, age 23, underwent a rhinoplasty 6 hours ago. After administering his pain
medications, the nurse notes that he is swallowing frequently. What is the most
likely cause of the swallowing?
A. Oral dryness caused by nasal packing
B. Bleeding posterior to the nasal packing
C. An adverse reactions to the analgesic
D. A normal response to the analgesic - Correct Answer-B. In a pt who has nasal
packing in place, frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding in the posterior
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, ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
pharynx. OPT A. is incorrect because mouth dryness causes thirst, not frequent
swallowing. OPT C and D are incorrect because frequent swallowing isn't a
response to analgesic.
A pt, age 72, has otosclerosis and is scheduled for stapedectomy. During
preoperative teaching, the nurse should give him which instructions.
A. "Cough and sneeze with your mouth closed."
B. "Try to get up and walk around as soon as you return from the operating room."
C. "Lie on the bed with your operative ear facing up."
D. "Turn your head rapidly to prevent dizziness." - Correct Answer-C. To prevent
pressure on the graft site, which may cause graft displacement, the nurse should
instruct the pt. to lie on the nonoperative side. OPT A is incorrect because the pt.
should cough or sneeze with his mouth open, not closed, to prevent increased
pressure through the eustachian tube into the middle ear (which could displace
the graft). OPT B. is incorrect because the patient should remain in bed for 24
hours after surgery to prevent graft displacement. OPT D is incorrect because rapid
head movement could cause vertigo.
During an eye assessment, a pt. complains that "a curtain seems to be coming
down in front of my eye." This complaint suggest which condition?
A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Cataract
D. Blepharitis - Correct Answer-B. With extensive, rapidly developing retinal
detachment, a pt may report the sensation of curtain dropping down in front of his
3|Page
, ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
eyes. OPT A,C, and D are incorrect because glaucoma, cataracts, and blepharitis
don't cause this sensation.
A pt, age 64, is receiving treatment for heart failure. The nurse should plan to
teach about which drugs?
A. Vasodilating agents, digoxin, and anti-inflammatory agents
B. Digoxin, vasodilating agents, and diuretics
C. Vasoconstricting agents, beta-adrenergic blockers, and digoxin
D. Antibiotic, vasopressors, and steroids. - Correct Answer-B. The practitioner may
prescribed digoxin for the pt with heart failure to increase contractility and slow
the heart rate (and thus improve cardiac function); a vasodilating agent to
decrease afterload; and a diuretic to reduce peripheral resistance (and thus
improve cardiac output). OPT A inaccurately suggests that anti-inflammatory
agents are used to treat heart failure; OPT C inaccurately suggests that
vasoconstricting agents are used. None of the drugs listed in OPT D are prescribed
for the pt with heart failure.
When assessing the pt. with an acute dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm, the
nurse would expect which findings?
A. Hypertension
B. Decreased hgb level and hct
C. Severe chest pain
D. Slow respiratory rate - Correct Answer-C. When the dissecting aneurysm begins,
severe chest pain (described as a tearing in the chest) develops, typically, the pt
also has s&s of respiratory distress and ischemia of the central nervous system,
4|Page
ANCC MEDSURG-BC LIPPINCOTT'S POST TEST PREP TEST BANK
LATEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS- ACE YOUR EXAM
A pt. who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive begins zidovudine
therapy. Which statement best describes the actions of this drug?
A. It eliminates the virus that causes AIDS.
B. It interferes with viral replications
C. It stimulates the immune system
D. It clears up skin lessions - Correct Answer-B. Ziduvudine inhibits
deoxyribonucleic acid synthesis within the virus that causes AIDS. interfering with
viral replications.
During routine hygiene care for a patient with AIDS, a nurse following standard
precautions would take which actions?
A. Use reverse isolation
B. Place the pt. in a private room
C. Put on mask, gloves, and a gown
D. Wear gloves when giving mouth care - Correct Answer-D. Standard precautions
stipulate that a health care worker who anticipates coming into contact with a pt.
blood or body fluid must wear gloves; this protects the health care worker. OPT A
is incorrect because reverse isolation is used to protect the patient from the health
1|Page
, ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
care worker. OPT B is incorrect because a private room doesn't provide a method
of barrier protections, which is needed for a standard precautions. OPT C is
incorrect because a mask and gloves are needed only for anticipated contact with
airborne droplets of blood or body fluids; a gown is needed only for anticipated
contact with splashes or blood or body fluid.
When assessing the skin of a pt. with deep partial-thickness burns, what would
the nurse expect to find?
A. Dry, pale areas with no blister formation
B. Blister of varying sizes, with areas of charred tissue
C. Cherry-red areas with weeping blister
D. Pearly-white areas with charred tissue - Correct Answer-C. In partial-thickness
burns, skin color varies from pink to cherry-red. Deep second-degree burns appear
cherry-red and may have blisters that ooze fluid. OPT A and D are incorrect
because they describe full-thickness burns. Opt B is incorrect because it describes
superficial partial-thickness burns.
A pt, age 23, underwent a rhinoplasty 6 hours ago. After administering his pain
medications, the nurse notes that he is swallowing frequently. What is the most
likely cause of the swallowing?
A. Oral dryness caused by nasal packing
B. Bleeding posterior to the nasal packing
C. An adverse reactions to the analgesic
D. A normal response to the analgesic - Correct Answer-B. In a pt who has nasal
packing in place, frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding in the posterior
2|Page
, ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
pharynx. OPT A. is incorrect because mouth dryness causes thirst, not frequent
swallowing. OPT C and D are incorrect because frequent swallowing isn't a
response to analgesic.
A pt, age 72, has otosclerosis and is scheduled for stapedectomy. During
preoperative teaching, the nurse should give him which instructions.
A. "Cough and sneeze with your mouth closed."
B. "Try to get up and walk around as soon as you return from the operating room."
C. "Lie on the bed with your operative ear facing up."
D. "Turn your head rapidly to prevent dizziness." - Correct Answer-C. To prevent
pressure on the graft site, which may cause graft displacement, the nurse should
instruct the pt. to lie on the nonoperative side. OPT A is incorrect because the pt.
should cough or sneeze with his mouth open, not closed, to prevent increased
pressure through the eustachian tube into the middle ear (which could displace
the graft). OPT B. is incorrect because the patient should remain in bed for 24
hours after surgery to prevent graft displacement. OPT D is incorrect because rapid
head movement could cause vertigo.
During an eye assessment, a pt. complains that "a curtain seems to be coming
down in front of my eye." This complaint suggest which condition?
A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Cataract
D. Blepharitis - Correct Answer-B. With extensive, rapidly developing retinal
detachment, a pt may report the sensation of curtain dropping down in front of his
3|Page
, ANCC Medsurg-BC Lippincott's Post Test PREP
eyes. OPT A,C, and D are incorrect because glaucoma, cataracts, and blepharitis
don't cause this sensation.
A pt, age 64, is receiving treatment for heart failure. The nurse should plan to
teach about which drugs?
A. Vasodilating agents, digoxin, and anti-inflammatory agents
B. Digoxin, vasodilating agents, and diuretics
C. Vasoconstricting agents, beta-adrenergic blockers, and digoxin
D. Antibiotic, vasopressors, and steroids. - Correct Answer-B. The practitioner may
prescribed digoxin for the pt with heart failure to increase contractility and slow
the heart rate (and thus improve cardiac function); a vasodilating agent to
decrease afterload; and a diuretic to reduce peripheral resistance (and thus
improve cardiac output). OPT A inaccurately suggests that anti-inflammatory
agents are used to treat heart failure; OPT C inaccurately suggests that
vasoconstricting agents are used. None of the drugs listed in OPT D are prescribed
for the pt with heart failure.
When assessing the pt. with an acute dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm, the
nurse would expect which findings?
A. Hypertension
B. Decreased hgb level and hct
C. Severe chest pain
D. Slow respiratory rate - Correct Answer-C. When the dissecting aneurysm begins,
severe chest pain (described as a tearing in the chest) develops, typically, the pt
also has s&s of respiratory distress and ischemia of the central nervous system,
4|Page
