TNCC 9 TH EDITION FINAL EXAM PREP TEST BANK LATEST
2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES GRADED A+
GUARANTEED PASS- ACE YOUR EXAM
1.
A 32-year-old patient arrives after a high-speed MVC. He is confused, has snoring
respirations, and an SpO₂ of 88%. What is the priority nursing intervention?
a) Administer supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula
b) Prepare for rapid sequence intubation
c) Insert an oropharyngeal airway
d) Assess pupils and Glasgow Coma Scale
Correct Answer: c)
Rationale: Snoring respirations indicate upper airway obstruction. Immediate
airway opening with an oropharyngeal airway is required before further
interventions.
2.
A trauma patient presents with hypotension, tachycardia, cool clammy skin, and
delayed capillary refill. Which type of shock is most likely?
a) Neurogenic
b) Cardiogenic
c) Septic
d) Hypovolemic
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Correct Answer: d)
Rationale: These classic signs indicate hypovolemic shock due to blood loss until
proven otherwise in trauma.
3.
During the primary survey, a patient has absent breath sounds on the left and
tracheal deviation to the right. What is the most appropriate action?
a) Obtain a stat chest x-ray
b) Insert a chest tube
c) Perform needle decompression
d) Administer IV fluids
Correct Answer: c)
Rationale: These findings indicate tension pneumothorax, which requires
immediate needle decompression before imaging.
4.
A trauma patient arrives with a pelvic binder already in place. What is the nurse’s
priority assessment?
a) Remove the binder to inspect the pelvis
b) Assess distal pulses and skin integrity
c) Apply ice packs to the pelvis
d) Obtain pelvic x-ray
Correct Answer: b)
Rationale: Pelvic binders remain in place until cleared; circulation and skin must be
assessed regularly.
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5.
Which finding best indicates effective ventilation during the primary survey?
a) Symmetrical chest rise
b) Respiratory rate of 20/min
c) Clear lung sounds
d) End-tidal CO₂ waveform
Correct Answer: d)
Rationale: End-tidal CO₂ directly reflects ventilation effectiveness and airway
placement.
6.
A trauma patient has a GCS of 7. What does this indicate?
a) Mild brain injury
b) Moderate brain injury
c) Severe brain injury
d) Brain death
Correct Answer: c)
Rationale: A GCS ≤8 indicates severe traumatic brain injury and the need for
airway protection.
7.
Which patient is the highest priority for rapid trauma team activation?
a) Fall from standing height with wrist pain
b) MVC at 40 mph with brief loss of consciousness
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c) Isolated femur fracture, stable vitals
d) Laceration requiring sutures
Correct Answer: b)
Rationale: High-speed MVC with loss of consciousness meets high-risk trauma
criteria.
8.
A patient with blunt abdominal trauma becomes hypotensive and restless. What
injury is most concerning?
a) Hollow organ injury
b) Splenic rupture
c) Renal contusion
d) Pancreatic injury
Correct Answer: b)
Rationale: Splenic rupture can cause rapid internal hemorrhage and shock.
9.
During secondary survey, which assessment is most important for spinal injury?
a) Range of motion
b) Sensory and motor function
c) Deep tendon reflexes
d) Pain scale
Correct Answer: b)
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