Hesi Herzing University -Pharmacology Evolve HESI
Questions With Complete Solutions
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head
injury is intubated and placed on assisted mechanical
ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the
client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider
administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid
analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible
for a potential complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine Correct Answers B. Neostigmine bromide
Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic
drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by
pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists
to pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing
the effects of the drug compared with the use of
anticholinergics.
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO
daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN.
The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
,C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic. Correct Answers C.
Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
When providing nursing care for a client receiving
pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing
intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease
gastrointestinal irritation. Correct Answers B. Assess
respiratory status and breath sounds often.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed
manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication
should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the
procedure?
A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM Correct Answers B. Midazolam
IV
A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine
to treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse
provide to this client prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
,B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day. Correct Answers
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child
whose tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The
nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood tests
every week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are
necessary. Which complication is assessed through frequent
laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity Correct Answers C. Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can
potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy.
The client requires close monitoring for this condition by
weekly laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but
this complication does not have as great a potential for
occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not typical
complications of carbamazepine therapy.
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client
receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse
writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration
of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the
nurse to add this intervention?
, A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide Correct Answers D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does
not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea
corporis infection. Which response by the client indicates an
accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the
nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug."
Correct Answers A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the
lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should
be cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side
effects of this medication.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with
status epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has
been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year.
Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in the
emergency department?
Questions With Complete Solutions
A 19-year-old male client who has sustained a severe head
injury is intubated and placed on assisted mechanical
ventilation. To facilitate optimal ventilation and prevent the
client from "fighting" the ventilator, the health care provider
administers pancuronium bromide IV, with adjunctive opioid
analgesia. What medication should be immediately accessible
for a potential complication with this drug?
A. Dantrolene sodium
B. Neostigmine bromide
C. Succinylcholine bromide
D. Epinephrine Correct Answers B. Neostigmine bromide
Neostigmine bromide and atropine sulfate, both anticholinergic
drugs, reverse the respiratory muscle paralysis caused by
pancuronium bromide. Options A, C, and D are not antagonists
to pancuronium bromide and would not be helpful in reversing
the effects of the drug compared with the use of
anticholinergics.
A client with viral influenza is receiving vitamin C, 1000 mg PO
daily, and acetaminophen elixir, 650 mg PO every 4 hours PRN.
The nurse calls the health care provider to report that the client
has developed diarrhea. Which change in prescriptions should
the nurse anticipate?
A. Change the acetaminophen to ibuprofen.
B. Change the elixir to an injectable route.
,C. Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
D. Begin treatment with an antibiotic. Correct Answers C.
Decrease the dose of vitamin C.
When providing nursing care for a client receiving
pyridostigmine bromide for myasthenia gravis, which nursing
intervention has the highest priority?
A. Monitor the client frequently for urinary retention.
B. Assess respiratory status and breath sounds often.
C. Monitor blood pressure each shift to screen for hypertension.
D. Administer most medications after meals to decrease
gastrointestinal irritation. Correct Answers B. Assess
respiratory status and breath sounds often.
A client with a dislocated shoulder is being prepared for a closed
manual reduction using conscious sedation. Which medication
should the nurse explain as a sedative used during the
procedure?
A.Inhaled nitrous oxide
B.Midazolam IV
C.Ketamine IM
D.Fentanyl and droperidol IM Correct Answers B. Midazolam
IV
A client is being discharged with a prescription for sulfasalazine
to treat ulcerative colitis. Which instruction should the nurse
provide to this client prior to discharge?
A. Maintain good oral hygiene.
,B. Take the medication 30 minutes before a meal.
C. Discontinue use of the drug gradually.
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day. Correct Answers
D. Drink at least eight glasses of fluid a day.
The health care provider prescribes carbamazepine for a child
whose tonic-clonic seizures have been poorly controlled. The
nurse informs the mother that the child must have blood tests
every week. The mother asks why so many blood tests are
necessary. Which complication is assessed through frequent
laboratory testing that the nurse should explain to this mother?
A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Ototoxicity
C. Myelosuppression
D.Hepatotoxicity Correct Answers C. Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression is the highest priority complication that can
potentially affect clients managed with carbamazepine therapy.
The client requires close monitoring for this condition by
weekly laboratory testing. Hepatic function may be altered, but
this complication does not have as great a potential for
occurrence as option C. Options A and B are not typical
complications of carbamazepine therapy.
When developing a written nursing care plan for a client
receiving chemotherapy for treatment of cancer, the nurse
writes, "Assess each voiding for hematuria." The administration
of which type of chemotherapeutic agent would prompt the
nurse to add this intervention?
, A. Vincristine
B. Bleomycin sulfate
C. Chlorambucil
D. Cyclophosphamide Correct Answers D. Cyclophosphamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis is the characteristic adverse reaction of
cyclophosphamide. Administration of options A, B, and C does
not typically cause hemorrhagic cystitis.
A client is receiving oral griseofulvin for a persistent tinea
corporis infection. Which response by the client indicates an
accurate understanding of the drug teaching conducted by the
nurse?
A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the lawn."
B. "This is the worse bacterial infection I've ever had."
C. "I will need to take the medication for 7 days."
D. "My urine will probably turn brown due to this drug."
Correct Answers A. "I'll wear sunscreen whenever I mow the
lawn."
Photosensitivity is a side effect of griseofulvin, so clients should
be cautioned to wear protective sunscreen during sun exposure.
Options B, C, and D are not accurate statements about side
effects of this medication.
A 6-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department with
status epilepticus. His parents report that his seizure disorder has
been managed with phenytoin, 50 mg PO bid, for the past year.
Which drug should the nurse plan to administer in the
emergency department?
