HESI MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING
PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value is
most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases renal excretion of
potassium, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia, which can cause
dysrhythmias.
Question 2
A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse
notes tachycardia and oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Apply supplemental oxygen
D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: These findings suggest a possible pulmonary embolism. Maintaining
airway and oxygenation is the immediate priority.
,Question 3
Which assessment finding in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 requires
immediate intervention?
A. Fruity breath odor
B. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL
C. Polyuria
D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fruity breath odor indicates diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening
condition requiring urgent treatment.
Question 4
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen via nasal
cannula at 4 L/min. Which finding indicates the oxygen flow rate may be too high?
A. Respiratory rate of 22/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 96%
C. Increased alertness
D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In COPD, excessive oxygen can suppress respiratory drive. Oxygen
saturation should generally be maintained between 88%–92%.
Question 5
Which position is most appropriate for a client experiencing increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Flat supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head of bed elevated 30 degrees
D. High Fowler’s
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous drainage and helps
reduce intracranial pressure.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Administer pancreatic enzymes
C. Maintain NPO status
D. Provide a high-fat diet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the client NPO reduces pancreatic stimulation and helps
decrease inflammation.
Question 7
Which finding suggests a complication of prolonged immobility?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased urine output
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prolonged immobility can lead to decreased vascular tone, causing
orthostatic hypotension.
, Question 8
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What outcome
indicates the medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum creatinine
B. Increased hemoglobin level
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, improving anemia
associated with kidney disease.
Question 9
Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client receiving warfarin?
A. INR of 3.0
B. Dark, tarry stools
C. Mild bruising
D. Bleeding gums when brushing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious
complication of anticoagulant therapy.
Question 10
A client with pneumonia has crackles in both lower lobes. Which intervention
helps promote airway clearance?
A. Restrict oral fluids
B. Encourage incentive spirometry
C. Maintain supine position
D. Limit coughing
PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS AND 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value is
most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases renal excretion of
potassium, placing the client at risk for hypokalemia, which can cause
dysrhythmias.
Question 2
A postoperative client reports sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. The nurse
notes tachycardia and oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Administer pain medication
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Apply supplemental oxygen
D. Obtain a chest x-ray
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: These findings suggest a possible pulmonary embolism. Maintaining
airway and oxygenation is the immediate priority.
,Question 3
Which assessment finding in a client with diabetes mellitus type 1 requires
immediate intervention?
A. Fruity breath odor
B. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL
C. Polyuria
D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Fruity breath odor indicates diabetic ketoacidosis, a life-threatening
condition requiring urgent treatment.
Question 4
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is receiving oxygen via nasal
cannula at 4 L/min. Which finding indicates the oxygen flow rate may be too high?
A. Respiratory rate of 22/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 96%
C. Increased alertness
D. Decreased heart rate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In COPD, excessive oxygen can suppress respiratory drive. Oxygen
saturation should generally be maintained between 88%–92%.
Question 5
Which position is most appropriate for a client experiencing increased intracranial
pressure?
A. Flat supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head of bed elevated 30 degrees
D. High Fowler’s
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous drainage and helps
reduce intracranial pressure.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Encourage oral fluids
B. Administer pancreatic enzymes
C. Maintain NPO status
D. Provide a high-fat diet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the client NPO reduces pancreatic stimulation and helps
decrease inflammation.
Question 7
Which finding suggests a complication of prolonged immobility?
A. Increased appetite
B. Decreased urine output
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Increased bowel sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Prolonged immobility can lead to decreased vascular tone, causing
orthostatic hypotension.
, Question 8
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What outcome
indicates the medication is effective?
A. Decreased serum creatinine
B. Increased hemoglobin level
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased potassium level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, improving anemia
associated with kidney disease.
Question 9
Which assessment finding is most concerning in a client receiving warfarin?
A. INR of 3.0
B. Dark, tarry stools
C. Mild bruising
D. Bleeding gums when brushing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious
complication of anticoagulant therapy.
Question 10
A client with pneumonia has crackles in both lower lobes. Which intervention
helps promote airway clearance?
A. Restrict oral fluids
B. Encourage incentive spirometry
C. Maintain supine position
D. Limit coughing
