FISDAP READINESS ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | Comprehensive Practice Test
| Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
SECTION 1: AIRWAY, RESPIRATION &
VENTILATION (30 Questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old male presents with respiratory distress after a house fire. He has facial
burns, singed nasal hairs, and a hoarse voice. His SpO2 is 94% on room air. Which
intervention takes highest priority?
A. Immediate endotracheal intubation due to risk of airway compromise
B. High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C. Assessment for impending airway obstruction with low threshold for advanced airway
management [CORRECT]
D. Nebulized albuterol for suspected bronchospasm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Singed nasal hairs, facial burns, and hoarse voice indicate potential inhalation
injury with risk of rapid airway edema. While the patient is currently maintaining his airway,
these signs warrant immediate preparation for definitive airway management. Intubation (A)
may be premature without current obstruction; high-flow O2 (B) doesn't address the
progressive airway threat; bronchodilators (D) are secondary to airway security.
Q2: During capnography monitoring of an intubated patient, you observe a sudden drop in
EtCO2 from 38 mmHg to 15 mmHg. The patient remains mechanically ventilated. What is the
most likely cause?
,A. Return of spontaneous circulation after cardiac arrest
B. Esophageal intubation or displacement into the hypopharynx
C. Increased cardiac output improving perfusion
D. Severe bronchospasm causing air trapping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden precipitous drop in EtCO2 in an intubated patient strongly suggests
esophageal intubation or tube displacement. Ventilation of the stomach or upper airway
delivers minimal CO2 to the detector. ROSC (A) would increase EtCO2; increased cardiac
output (C) would improve EtCO2; bronchospasm (D) typically causes an upsloping waveform,
not a sudden numerical drop.
Q3: Which of the following is NOT an indication for nasopharyngeal airway insertion?
A. Patient with gag reflex intact who needs airway adjunct
B. Patient with suspected basilar skull fracture
C. Patient requiring frequent oropharyngeal suctioning
D. Patient with trismus preventing mouth opening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suspected basilar skull fracture is a contraindication for nasopharyngeal airway
insertion due to risk of entering the cranial vault through a fractured cribriform plate. An
intact gag reflex (A) actually favors NPA over OPA; frequent suctioning needs (C) and trismus
(D) are both valid indications for NPA use.
Q4: A 3-year-old child presents with croup-like symptoms and increasing respiratory distress.
Stridor is heard at rest. Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate initially?
A. High-flow nasal cannula at 2 L/kg/min
B. Blow-by oxygen with parent holding mask near child's face [CORRECT]
C. Immediate endotracheal intubation in the field
D. Non-rebreather mask at 12-15 L/min
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric patients with upper airway obstruction, agitation can worsen airway
compromise. Blow-by oxygen minimizes distress while providing supplemental O2. High-flow
cannula (A) may cause agitation; immediate intubation (C) is premature without respiratory
failure; tight-fitting mask (D) may increase anxiety and worsen obstruction.
Q5: When performing oropharyngeal suctioning, the maximum duration for each suction pass
should not exceed:
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds [CORRECT]
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxemia and
vagal stimulation. Prolonged suctioning can cause significant desaturation, especially in
patients with marginal reserve. Pre-oxygenation before suctioning is essential.
Q6: An EMT is ventilating an apneic adult patient with a BVM. The patient's chest is not rising
despite proper seal and head positioning. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Increase ventilation rate to 20 breaths/min
B. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear obstruction
C. Reassess airway opening and consider oropharyngeal airway insertion [CORRECT]
D. Immediately begin chest compressions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failure to achieve chest rise during BVM ventilation indicates inadequate airway
patency. The EMT should reassess head-tilt-chin-lift or jaw-thrust and consider airway
adjuncts. Increasing rate (A) worsens the problem; abdominal thrusts (B) are for conscious
obstruction; compressions (D) are not indicated without cardiac arrest.
Q7: Which capnography waveform finding is characteristic of bronchospasm?
, A. Baseline elevation above zero
B. Upsloping plateau phase [CORRECT]
C. Exponential downslope during exhalation
D. Sudden drop to zero with return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bronchospasm causes delayed emptying of alveoli, producing a "shark fin" or
upsloping plateau on the capnography waveform. Baseline elevation (A) indicates rebreathing;
exponential downslope (C) is normal; sudden drop (D) suggests tube displacement or circuit
disconnection.
Q8: A paramedic is preparing to intubate a 25-year-old trauma patient with a GCS of 6. Which
medication combination provides optimal conditions for rapid sequence intubation while
minimizing hemodynamic compromise?
A. Etomidate 0.3 mg/kg and succinylcholine 1.5 mg/kg [CORRECT]
B. Midazolam 0.1 mg/kg and rocuronium 1 mg/kg
C. Ketamine 2 mg/kg and vecuronium 0.1 mg/kg
D. Propofol 2.5 mg/kg and succinylcholine 1.5 mg/kg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Etomidate provides hemodynamic stability with reliable amnesia and anesthesia,
making it ideal for trauma patients. Succinylcholine offers rapid onset and short duration for
neuromuscular blockade. Midazolam (B) causes hypotension; ketamine (C) is acceptable but
vecuronium has longer duration; propofol (D) causes significant hypotension in trauma
patients.
Q9: The primary advantage of using a supraglottic airway (King LT or i-gel) over endotracheal
intubation in the prehospital setting includes:
A. Complete protection against aspiration
B. Faster insertion with minimal training requirements [CORRECT]
C. Ability to provide higher ventilation pressures
2026/2027 | Comprehensive Practice Test
| Verified Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
SECTION 1: AIRWAY, RESPIRATION &
VENTILATION (30 Questions)
Q1: A 45-year-old male presents with respiratory distress after a house fire. He has facial
burns, singed nasal hairs, and a hoarse voice. His SpO2 is 94% on room air. Which
intervention takes highest priority?
A. Immediate endotracheal intubation due to risk of airway compromise
B. High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C. Assessment for impending airway obstruction with low threshold for advanced airway
management [CORRECT]
D. Nebulized albuterol for suspected bronchospasm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Singed nasal hairs, facial burns, and hoarse voice indicate potential inhalation
injury with risk of rapid airway edema. While the patient is currently maintaining his airway,
these signs warrant immediate preparation for definitive airway management. Intubation (A)
may be premature without current obstruction; high-flow O2 (B) doesn't address the
progressive airway threat; bronchodilators (D) are secondary to airway security.
Q2: During capnography monitoring of an intubated patient, you observe a sudden drop in
EtCO2 from 38 mmHg to 15 mmHg. The patient remains mechanically ventilated. What is the
most likely cause?
,A. Return of spontaneous circulation after cardiac arrest
B. Esophageal intubation or displacement into the hypopharynx
C. Increased cardiac output improving perfusion
D. Severe bronchospasm causing air trapping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sudden precipitous drop in EtCO2 in an intubated patient strongly suggests
esophageal intubation or tube displacement. Ventilation of the stomach or upper airway
delivers minimal CO2 to the detector. ROSC (A) would increase EtCO2; increased cardiac
output (C) would improve EtCO2; bronchospasm (D) typically causes an upsloping waveform,
not a sudden numerical drop.
Q3: Which of the following is NOT an indication for nasopharyngeal airway insertion?
A. Patient with gag reflex intact who needs airway adjunct
B. Patient with suspected basilar skull fracture
C. Patient requiring frequent oropharyngeal suctioning
D. Patient with trismus preventing mouth opening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suspected basilar skull fracture is a contraindication for nasopharyngeal airway
insertion due to risk of entering the cranial vault through a fractured cribriform plate. An
intact gag reflex (A) actually favors NPA over OPA; frequent suctioning needs (C) and trismus
(D) are both valid indications for NPA use.
Q4: A 3-year-old child presents with croup-like symptoms and increasing respiratory distress.
Stridor is heard at rest. Which oxygen delivery method is most appropriate initially?
A. High-flow nasal cannula at 2 L/kg/min
B. Blow-by oxygen with parent holding mask near child's face [CORRECT]
C. Immediate endotracheal intubation in the field
D. Non-rebreather mask at 12-15 L/min
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric patients with upper airway obstruction, agitation can worsen airway
compromise. Blow-by oxygen minimizes distress while providing supplemental O2. High-flow
cannula (A) may cause agitation; immediate intubation (C) is premature without respiratory
failure; tight-fitting mask (D) may increase anxiety and worsen obstruction.
Q5: When performing oropharyngeal suctioning, the maximum duration for each suction pass
should not exceed:
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds [CORRECT]
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxemia and
vagal stimulation. Prolonged suctioning can cause significant desaturation, especially in
patients with marginal reserve. Pre-oxygenation before suctioning is essential.
Q6: An EMT is ventilating an apneic adult patient with a BVM. The patient's chest is not rising
despite proper seal and head positioning. What is the next appropriate step?
A. Increase ventilation rate to 20 breaths/min
B. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear obstruction
C. Reassess airway opening and consider oropharyngeal airway insertion [CORRECT]
D. Immediately begin chest compressions
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failure to achieve chest rise during BVM ventilation indicates inadequate airway
patency. The EMT should reassess head-tilt-chin-lift or jaw-thrust and consider airway
adjuncts. Increasing rate (A) worsens the problem; abdominal thrusts (B) are for conscious
obstruction; compressions (D) are not indicated without cardiac arrest.
Q7: Which capnography waveform finding is characteristic of bronchospasm?
, A. Baseline elevation above zero
B. Upsloping plateau phase [CORRECT]
C. Exponential downslope during exhalation
D. Sudden drop to zero with return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bronchospasm causes delayed emptying of alveoli, producing a "shark fin" or
upsloping plateau on the capnography waveform. Baseline elevation (A) indicates rebreathing;
exponential downslope (C) is normal; sudden drop (D) suggests tube displacement or circuit
disconnection.
Q8: A paramedic is preparing to intubate a 25-year-old trauma patient with a GCS of 6. Which
medication combination provides optimal conditions for rapid sequence intubation while
minimizing hemodynamic compromise?
A. Etomidate 0.3 mg/kg and succinylcholine 1.5 mg/kg [CORRECT]
B. Midazolam 0.1 mg/kg and rocuronium 1 mg/kg
C. Ketamine 2 mg/kg and vecuronium 0.1 mg/kg
D. Propofol 2.5 mg/kg and succinylcholine 1.5 mg/kg
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Etomidate provides hemodynamic stability with reliable amnesia and anesthesia,
making it ideal for trauma patients. Succinylcholine offers rapid onset and short duration for
neuromuscular blockade. Midazolam (B) causes hypotension; ketamine (C) is acceptable but
vecuronium has longer duration; propofol (D) causes significant hypotension in trauma
patients.
Q9: The primary advantage of using a supraglottic airway (King LT or i-gel) over endotracheal
intubation in the prehospital setting includes:
A. Complete protection against aspiration
B. Faster insertion with minimal training requirements [CORRECT]
C. Ability to provide higher ventilation pressures
