NURS MISC Maternity Exam 2 Questions and Answers- Northeastern University

NURS MISC Maternity Exam 2 Questions and Answers The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who admits to using cocaine and ecstasy on a regular basis. The client states, "Everybody knows that alcohol is bad during pregnancy, but what's the big deal about ecstasy?" What is the nurse's best response? 1. "Ecstasy can cause a high fever in you and therefore cause the baby harm." 2. "Ecstasy leads to deficiencies of thiamine and folic acid, which help the baby develop." 3. "Ecstasy produces babies with small heads and short bodies with brain function alterations." 4. "Ecstasy produces intrauterine growth restriction and meconium aspiration." The nurse is doing preconception counseling with a 28-year-old woman with no prior pregnancies. Which statement made by the client indicates to the nurse that the client has understood the teaching? 1. "I can continue to drink alcohol until I am diagnosed as pregnant." 2. "I need to stop drinking alcohol completely when I start trying to get pregnant." 3. "A beer once a week will not damage the fetus." 4. "I can drink alcohol while breastfeeding because it doesn't pass into breast milk." A woman's history and appearance suggest drug abuse. What is the nurse's best approach? 1. Ask the woman directly, "Do you use any street drugs?" 2. Ask the woman whether she would like to talk to a counselor. 3. Ask some questions about over-the-counter medications and avoid mention of illicit drugs. 4. Explain how harmful drugs can be for her baby. A 20-year-old woman is at 28 weeks' gestation. Her prenatal history reveals past drug abuse, and urine screening indicates that she has recently used heroin. The nurse should recognize that the woman is at increased risk for which condition? 1. Erythroblastosis fetalis 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Abruptio placentae 4. Pregnancy-induced hypertension The nurse is working with a woman who abuses stimulants. The nurse is aware that the fetus is at risk for which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Withdrawal symptoms 2. Cardiac anomalies 3. Sudden infant death syndrome 4. Being small for gestational age 5. Fetal alcohol syndrome The nurse is assessing a woman at 10 weeks' gestation who is addicted to alcohol. The woman asks the nurse, "What is the point of stopping drinking now if my baby probably has been hurt by it already?" What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "It won't help your baby, but you will feel better during your pregnancy if you stop now." 2. "If you stop now, you and your baby have less chance of serious complications." 3. "If you limit your drinking to once a week, your baby will be okay." 4. "You might as well stop it now, because once your baby is born, you'll have to give up alcohol if you plan on breastfeeding." The client has just been diagnosed as diabetic. The nurse knows teaching was effective when the client makes which statement? 1. "Ketones in my urine mean that my body is using the glucose appropriately." 2. "I should be urinating frequently and in large amounts to get rid of the extra sugar." 3. "My pancreas is making enough insulin, but my body isn't using it correctly." 4. "I might be hungry frequently because the sugar isn't getting into the tissues the way it should." The client with insulin-dependent type 2 diabetes and an HbA1c of 5.0% is planning to become pregnant soon. What anticipatory guidance should the nurse provide this client? 1. Insulin needs decrease in the first trimester and usually begin to rise late in the first trimester as glucose use and glycogen storage by the woman and fetus increase. 2. The risk of ketoacidosis decreases during the length of the pregnancy. 3. Vascular disease that accompanies diabetes slows progression. 4. The baby is likely to have a congenital abnormality because of the diabetes. A newly diagnosed insulin-dependent type 1 diabetic with good blood sugar control is at 20 weeks' gestation. She asks the nurse how her diabetes will affect her baby. What would the best explanation include? 1. "Your baby could be smaller than average at birth." 2. "Your baby will probably be larger than average at birth." 3. "As long as you control your blood sugar, your baby will not be affected at all." 4. "Your baby might have high blood sugar for several days." A 26-year-old client is 28 weeks pregnant. She has developed gestational diabetes. She is following a program of regular exercise, which includes walking, bicycling, and swimming. What instructions should be included in a teaching plan for this client? 1. "Exercise either just before meals or wait until 2 hours after a meal." 2. "Carry hard candy (or other simple sugar) when exercising." 3. "If your blood sugar is 120 mg/dL, eat 20 g of carbohydrate." 4. "If your blood sugar is more than 120 mg/dL, drink a glass of whole milk." A 26-year-old client is 26 weeks pregnant. Her previous births include two large-for-gestational- age babies and one unexplained stillbirth. Which tests would the nurse anticipate as being most definitive in diagnosing gestational diabetes? 1. A 50g, 1-hour glucose screening test 2. A single fasting glucose level 3. A 100g, 1-hour glucose tolerance test 4. A 100g, 3-hour glucose tolerance test A client with diabetes is receiving preconception counseling. The nurse will emphasize that during the first trimester, the woman should be prepared for which of the following? 1. The need for less insulin than she normally uses 2. Blood testing for anemia 3. Assessment for respiratory complications 4. Assessment for contagious conditions The nurse has written the nursing diagnosis Injury, Risk for a diabetic pregnant client. Interventions for this diagnosis include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Assessment of fetal heart tones 2. Perform oxytocin challenge test, if ordered 3. Refer the client to a diabetes support group 4. Assist with the biophysical profile assessment 5. Develop an appropriate teaching plan A diabetic client goes into labor at 36 weeks' gestation. Provided that tests for fetal lung maturity are successful, the nurse will anticipate which of the following interventions? Select all that apply. 1. Administration of tocolytic therapy 2. Beta-sympathomimetic administration 3. Allowance of labor to progress 4. Hourly blood glucose monitoring 5. Cesarean birth may be indicated if evidence of reassuring fetal status exists A woman asks her nurse what she can do before she begins trying to get pregnant to help her baby, as she is prone to anemia. What would the nurse correctly advise her to do? 1. Get pregnant, then start iron supplementation. 2. Add more carbohydrates to her diet. 3. Begin taking folic acid supplements daily. 4. Have a hemoglobin baseline done now so her progress can be followed. The client with thalassemia intermedia has a hemoglobin level of 9.0. The nurse is preparing an education session for the client. Which statement should the nurse include? 1. "You need to increase your intake of meat and other iron-rich foods." 2. "Your low hemoglobin could put you into preterm labor." 3. "Increasing your vitamin C intake will help your hemoglobin level." 4. "You should not take iron supplements." The client at 20 weeks' gestation has had an ultrasound that revealed a neural tube defect in her fetus. The client's hemoglobin level is 8.5. The nurse should include which statement when discussing these findings with the client? 1. "Your low iron intake has caused anemia, which leads to the neural tube defect." 2. "You should increase your vitamin C intake to improve your anemia." 3. "You are too picky about food. Your poor diet caused your baby's defect." 4. "You haven't had enough folic acid in your diet. You should take a supplement." The clinic nurse is teaching a pregnant client about her iron supplement. Which information is included in the teaching? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct and no incorrect choices are selected. Select all that apply. 1. Iron does not affect the gastrointestinal tract. 2. A stool softener might be needed. 3. Start a low dose, and increase it gradually. 4. Expect the stools to be black and bloody. 5. Iron absorption is poor if taken with meals. The client at 9 weeks' gestation has been told that her HIV test was positive. The client is very upset, and tells the nurse, "I didn't know I had HIV! What will this do to my baby?" The nurse knows teaching has been effective when the client makes which statement? 1. "I cannot take the medications that control HIV during my pregnancy, because they will harm the baby." 2. "My baby can get HIV during the pregnancy and through my breast milk." 3. "The pregnancy will increase the progression of my disease and will reduce my CD4 counts." 4. "The HIV won't affect my baby, and I will have a low-risk pregnancy without additional testing." During the history, the client admits to being HIV-positive and says she knows that she is about 16 weeks pregnant. Which statements made by the client indicate an understanding of the plan of care both during the pregnancy and postpartally? Select all that apply. 1. "During labor and delivery, I can expect the zidovudine (ZDV) to be given in my IV." 2. "After delivery, the dose of zidovudine (ZDV) will be doubled to prevent further infection." 3. "My baby will be started on zidovudine (ZDV) for six weeks following the birth." 4. "My baby's zidovudine (ZDV) will be given in a cream form." 5. "My baby will not need zidovudine (ZDV) if I take it during my pregnancy." A woman is 32 weeks pregnant. She is HIV-positive but asymptomatic. The nurse knows what would be important in managing her pregnancy and delivery? 1. An amniocentesis at 30 and 36 weeks 2. Weekly non-stress testing beginning at 32 weeks' gestation 3. Application of a fetal scalp electrode as soon as her membranes rupture in labor 4. Administration of intravenous antibiotics during labor and delivery A pregnant woman is married to an intravenous drug user. She had a negative HIV screening test just after missing her first menstrual period. What would indicate that the client needs to be retested for HIV? 1. Hemoglobin of 11 g/dL and a rapid weight gain 2. Elevated blood pressure and ankle edema 3. Shortness of breath and frequent urination 4. Persistent candidiasis The nurse is evaluating the goal "Client will remain free of opportunistic infections" for an HIV- positive pregnant client. The nurse determines the goal was met when the client has which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. An absolute CD4+ T-lymphocyte count below 200 2. No complaint of chills or fever during the pregnancy 3. Weight gain of 30 lbs during the pregnancy 4. ESR above 20 mm/hr 5. Normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate maintained during the pregnancy Women with HIV should be evaluated and treated for other sexually transmitted infections and for what condition occurring more commonly in women with HIV? 1. Syphilis 2. Toxoplasmosis 3. Gonorrhea 4. Herpes A 21-year-old at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby has known cardiac disease, class III, as a result of childhood rheumatic fever. During a prenatal visit, the nurse reviews the signs of cardiac decompensation with her. The nurse will know that the client understands these signs and symptoms if she states that she would notify her doctor if she had which symptom? 1. "A pulse rate increase of 10 beats per minute" 2. "Breast tenderness" 3. "Mild ankle edema" 4. "A frequent cough" A client is at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby. She has cardiac disease, class III. She states that she had been taking sodium warfarin (Coumadin), but her physician changed her to heparin. She asks the nurse why this was done. What should the nurse's response be? 1. "Heparin is used when coagulation problems are resolved." 2. "Heparin is safer because it does not cross the placenta." 3. "They are the same drug, but heparin is less expensive." 4. "Coumadin interferes with iron absorption in the intestines." A 21-year-old woman is at 12 weeks' gestation with her first baby. She has cardiac disease, class III, as a result of having had childhood rheumatic fever. Which planned activity would indicate to the nurse that the client needs further teaching? 1. "I will be sure to take a rest period every afternoon." 2. "I would like to take childbirth education classes in my last trimester." 3. "I will have to cancel our trip to Disney World." 4. "I am going to start my classes in water aerobics next week." Which of the following symptoms, if progressive, are indicative of CHF, the heart's signal of its decreased ability to meet the demands of pregnancy? Select all that apply. 1. Palpitations 2. Heart murmurs 3. Dyspnea 4. Frequent urination 5. Rales The nurse is evaluating the plan of care for a pregnant client with a heart disorder. The nurse concludes that the plan was successful when data indicate which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. The client gave birth to a healthy baby. 2. The client did not develop congestive heart failure. 3. The client developed thromboembolism. 4. The client identified manifestations of potential complications. 5. The client can identify her condition and its impact on her pregnancy, labor and birth, and postpartum period. The renatal clinic nurse has received four phone calls. Which client should the nurse call back first 1. Pregnant woman at 28 weeks with history of asthma who is reporting difficulty breathing an shortness of breath 2. Pregnant woman at 6 weeks with a seizure disorder who is inquiring which foods are good folc acid sources for her 3. Pregnant woman at 35 weeks with a positive HBsAG who is wondering what treatment her baby will receive after birth 4. Pregnant woman at 11 weeks with untreated hyperthyroidism who is describing the onset of vaginal bleeding The nurse is working with a pregnant woman who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What does the nurse anticipate the infant might be born with? Select all that apply. 1. A tendency to bleed excessively 2. An increased chance of developing infections 3. A hemoglobin less than optimal for good health 4. Problems with vision 5. Hearing loss A pregnant asthmatic client is being seen for her initial prenatal visit. The nurse knows that the fetal implications of maternal asthma include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Prematurity 2. Low birth weight 3. Hypoxia with maternal exacerbation 4. Congenital anomalies from the medications 5. Perinatal transfer of the asthma While doing a prenatal assessment on a woman who has hepatitis B and intends to become pregnant, the nurse explains the impact of the hepatitis B on pregnancy and birth. Which statement does the nurse include in the teaching? 1. "Your baby contracted hepatitis B from you when she was conceived." 2. "Don't worry about your baby during the birth. You're more likely to be affected then by the hepatitis B." 3. "Your baby will be immune to your hepatitis B." 4. "Hepatitis B does not usually affect the course of pregnancy." The nurse is caring for a client who was just admitted to rule out ectopic pregnancy. Which orders are the most important for the nurse to perform? Select all that apply. 1. Assess the client's temperature. 2. Document the time of the client's last meal. 3. Obtain urine for urinalysis and culture. 4. Report complaints of dizziness or weakness. 5. Have the lab draw blood for B-hCG level every 48 hours. The nurse educator is presenting a class on the different kinds of miscarriages. Miscarriages, or spontaneous abortions, are classified clinically into which of the following different categories? Select all that apply. 1. Threatened bortion 2. Incomplee abortion 3. Complete abortion 4. Missed abortin 5. Acute abortion The nurse is presenting a class on the pathophysiology of the different abortions. Some of the causes are which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Chromosomal abnormalities 2. Insufficient or excessive hormonal levels 3. Sexual intercourse in the first trimester 4. Infections in the first trimester 5. Cervical insufficiency A woman is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia. The nurse is meal-planning with the client and encourages a diet that is high in what? 1. Sodium 2. Carbohydrates 3. Protein 4. Fruits The nurse is assessing a client who has severe preeclampsia. What assessment finding should be reported to the physician? 1. Excretion of less than 300 mg of protein in a 24-hour period 2. Platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3 3. Urine output of 50 mL per hour 4. 12 respirations A woman is 16 weeks pregnant. She has had cramping, backache, and mild bleeding for the past 3 days. Her physician determines that her cervix is dilated to 2 centimeters, with 10% effacement, but membranes are still intact. She is crying, and says to the nurse, "Is my baby going to be okay?" In addition to acknowledging the client's fear, what should the nurse also say? 1. "Your baby will be fine. We'll start IV, and get this stopped in no time at all." 2. "Your cervix is beginning to dilate. That is a serious sign. We will continue to monitor you and the baby for now." 3. "You are going to miscarry. But you should be relieved because most miscarriages are the result of abnormalities in the fetus." 4. "I really can't say. However, when your physician comes, I'll ask her to talk to you about it." The nurse is supervising care in the emergency department. Which situation most requires an intervention? 1. Moderate vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks' gestation; client has an IV of lactated Ringer's solution running at 125 mL/hour 2. Spotting of pinkish-brown discharge at 6 weeks' gestation and abdominal cramping; ultrasound scheduled in 1 hour 3. Bright red bleeding with clots at 32 weeks' gestation; pulse = 110, blood pressure 90/50, respirations = 20 4. Dark red bleeding at 30 weeks' gestation with normal vital signs; client reports an absence of fetal movement A client who is 11 weeks pregnant presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, lower abdominal pain, and right shoulder pain. Laboratory tests reveal a beta-hCG at a lower-than-expected level for this gestational age. An adnexal mass is palpable. Ultrasound confirms no intrauterine gestation. The client is crying and asks what is happening. The nurse knows that the most likely diagnosis is an ectopic pregnancy. Which statement should the nurse include? 1. "You're feeling dizzy because the pregnancy is compressing your vena cava." 2. "The pain is due to the baby putting pressure on nerves internally." 3. "The baby is in the fallopian tube; the tube has ruptured and is causing bleeding." 4. "This is a minor problem. The doctor will be right back to explain it to you." A client at 18 weeks' gestation has been diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole. In addition to vaginal bleeding, which signs or symptoms would the nurse expect to see? Select all that apply. 1. Hyperemesis gravidarum 2. Diarrhea and hyperthermia 3. Uterine enlargement greater than expected 4. Polydipsia 5. Vaginal bleeding A woman at 7 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis would receive priority? 1. Fluid Volume: Deficient 2. Cardiac Output, Decreased 3. Injury, Risk for 4. Nutrition, Imbalanced: Less than Body Requirements The prenatal clinic nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum at 14 weeks' gestation. The vital signs are: blood pressure 95/48, pulse 114, respirations 24. Which order should the nurse implement first? 1. Weigh the client. 2. Give 1 liter of lactated Ringer's solution IV. 3. Administer 30 mL Maalox (magnesium hydroxide) orally. 4. Encourage clear liquids orally. A pregnant client has been admitted with a diagnosis of hyperemesis. Which orders written by the primary healthcare provider are the highest priorities for the nurse to implement? Select all that apply. 1. Obtain complete blood count. 2. Start intravenous fluid with multivitamins. 3. Check admission weight. 4. Obtain urine for urinalysis. 5. Give a medication to stop the nausea and vomiting. A primary herpes simplex infection in the first trimester can increase the risk of which of the following? 1. Spontaneous abortion 2. Preterm labor 3. Intrauterine growth restriction 4. Neonatal infection A woman is being treated for preterm labor with magnesium sulfate. The nurse is concerned that the client is experiencing early drug toxicity. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates early magnesium sulfate toxicity? 1. Patellar reflexes weak or absent 2. Increased appetite 3. Respiratory rate of 16 4. Fetal heart rate of 120 Doppler flow studies (umbilical velocimetry) help to assess which of the following? 1. Placental function and sufficiency 2. Fetal heart rate 3. Fetal growth and fluid levels 4. Maturity of the fetal lungs When blood pressure and other signs indicate that the preeclampsia is worsening, hospitalization is necessary to monitor the woman's condition closely. At that time, which of the following should be assessed? Select all that apply. 1. Fetal heart rate 2. Blood pressure 3. Temperature 4. Urine color 5. Pulse and respirations The community nurse is working with a client at 32 weeks' gestation who has been diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which statement by the client would indicate that additional information is needed? 1. "I should call the doctor if I develop a headache or blurred vision." 2. "Lying on my left side as much as possible is good for the baby." 3. "My urine could become darker and smaller in amount each day." 4. "Pain in the top of my abdomen is a sign my condition is worsening." Infants of women with preeclampsia during pregnancy tend to be small for gestational age (SGA) because of which condition? 1. Intrauterine growth restriction 2. Oliguria 3. Proteinuria 4. Hypertension A woman is experiencing preterm labor. The client asks why she is on betamethasone. Which is the nurse's best response? 1. "This medication will halt the labor process until the baby is more mature." 2. "This medication will relax the smooth muscles in the infant's lungs so the baby can breathe." 3. "This medication is effective in stimulating lung development in the preterm infant." 4. "This medication is an antibiotic that will treat your urinary tract infection, which caused preterm labor." A client is being admitted to the labor area with the diagnosis of eclampsia. Which actions by the nurse are appropriate at this time? Select all that apply. 1. Tape a tongue blade to the head of the bed. 2. Pad the side rails. 3. Have the woman sit up. 4. Provide the client with grief counseling. 5. The airway should be maintained and oxygen administered. A clinic nurse is planning when to administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative pregnant client. When should the first dose of RhoGAM be administered? 1. After the birth of the infant 2. 1 month postpartum 3. During labor 4. At 28 weeks' gestation Whether sensitization is the result of a blood transfusion or maternal-fetal hemorrhage for any reason, what test can be performed to determine the amount of Rh(D) positive blood present in the maternal circulation and to calculate the amount of Rh immune globulin needed? 1. Indirect Coombs' test 2. Nonstress test 3. Kleihauer-Betke or rosette test 4. Direct Coombs' test Which maternal-child client should the nurse see first? 1. Blood type O, Rh-negative 2. Indirect Coombs' test negative 3. Direct Coombs' test positive 4. Blood type B, Rh-positive The client with blood type A, Rh-negative, delivered yesterday. Her infant is blood type AB, Rh- positive. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "I need to get RhoGAM so I don't have problems with my next pregnancy." 2. "Because my baby is Rh-positive, I don't need RhoGAM." 3. "If my baby had the same blood type I do, it might cause complications." 4. "Before my next pregnancy, I will need to have a RhoGAM shot." A client is concerned because she has been told her blood type and her baby's are incompatible. What is the nurse's best response? 1. "This is called ABO incompatibility. It is somewhat common but rarely causes significant hemolysis." 2. "This is a serious condition, and additional blood studies are currently in process to determine whether you need a medication to prevent it from occurring with a future pregnancy." 3. "This is a condition caused by a blood incompatibility between you and your husband, but does not affect the baby." 4. "This type of condition is very common, and the baby can receive a medication to prevent jaundice from occurring." If the woman is Rh negative and not sensitized, she is given Rh immune globulin to prevent what? 1. The potential for hemorrhage 2. Hyperhomocysteinemia 3. Antibody formation 4. Tubal pregnancy The client presents to the clinic for an initial prenatal examination. She asks the nurse whether there might be a problem for her baby because she has type B Rh-positive blood and her husband has type O Rh-negative blood, or because her sister's baby had ABO incompatibility. What is the nurse's best answer? Select all that apply. 1. "Your baby would be at risk for Rh problems if your husband were Rh-negative." 2. "Rh problems only occur when the mother is Rh-negative and the father is not." 3. "ABO incompatibility occurs only after the baby is born." 4. "We don't know for sure, but we can test for ABO incompatibility." 5. "Your husband's being type B puts you at risk for ABO incompatibility." A woman has a hydatidiform mole (molar pregnancy) evacuated, and is prepared for discharge. The nurse should make certain that the client understands that what is essential? 1. That she not become pregnant until after the follow-up program is completed 2. That she receive RhoGAM with her next pregnancy and birth 3. That she has her blood pressure checked weekly for the next 30 days 4. That she seek genetic counseling with her partner before the next pregnancy A client at 10 weeks' gestation has developed cholecystitis. If surgery is required, what is the safest time during pregnancy? 1. Immediately, before the fetus gets any bigger 2. Early in the second trimester 3. As close to term as possible 4. The risks are too high to do it anytime in pregnancy The nurse is presenting a class to newly pregnant families. What form of trauma will the nurse describe as the leading cause of fetal and maternal death? 1. Falls 2. Domestic violence 3. Gun accidents 4. Motor vehicle accidents During a prenatal exam, a client describes several psychosomatic symptoms and has several vague complaints. What could these behaviors indicate? 1. Abuse 2. Mental illness 3. Depression 4. Nothing, they are normal The nurse is caring for a client at 35 weeks' gestation who has been critically injured in a shooting. Which statement by the paramedics bringing the woman to the hospital would cause the greatest concern? 1. "Blood pressure 110/68, pulse 90." 2. "Entrance wound present below the umbilicus." 3. "Client is positioned in a left lateral tilt." 4. "Clear fluid is leaking from the vagina." The client at 34 weeks' gestation has been stabbed in the low abdomen by her boyfriend. She is brought to the emergency department for treatment. Which statements indicate that the client understands the treatment being administered? Select all that apply. 1. "The baby needs to be monitored to check the heart rate." 2. "My bowel has probably been lacerated by the knife." 3. "I might need an ultrasound to look at the baby." 4. "The catheter in my bladder will prevent urinary complications." 5. "The IV in my arm will replace the amniotic fluid if it is leaking." A client is admitted to the labor suite. It is essential that the nurse assess the woman's status in relation to which infectious diseases? Select all that apply. 1. Chlamydia trachomatis 2. Rubeola 3. Varicella 4. Group B streptococcus 5. Acute pyelonephritis The nurse knows that a mother who has been treated for Beta streptococcus passes this risk on to her newborn. Risk factors for neonatal sepsis caused by Beta streptococcus include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Prematurity 2. Maternal intrapartum fever 3. Membranes ruptured for longer than 18 hours 4. A previously infected infant with GBS disease 5. An older mother having her first baby How would the nurse best analyze the results from a client's sonogram that shows the fetal shoulder as the presenting part? 1. Breech, transverse 2. Breech, longitudinal 3. Breech, frank 4. Vertex, transverse A clinic nurse is preparing diagrams of pelvic shapes. Which pelvic shapes are considered least adequate for vaginal childbirth? Select all that apply. 1. Android 2. Anthropoid 3. Gynecoid 4. Platypelloid 5. Lambdoidal suture The nurse is caring for laboring clients. Which women are experiencing problems related to a critical factor of labor? Select all that apply. 1. Woman at 7 cm, fetus in general flexion 2. Woman at 3 cm, fetus in longitudinal lie 3. Woman at 4 cm, fetus with transverse lie 4. Woman at 6 cm, fetus at -2 station, mild contractions 5. Woman at 5 cm, fetal presenting part is right shoulder The charge nurse has received the shift change report. Which client requires immediate intervention? 1. Woman at 6 cm undergoing induction of labor, strong contractions every 3 minutes 2. Woman at 4 cm whose fetus is in a longitudinal lie with a cephalic presentation 3. Woman at 10 cm and fetus at +2 station experiencing a strong expulsion urge 4. Woman at 3 cm screaming in fear because her mother died during childbirth Premonitory signs of labor include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Braxton Hicks contractions 2. Cervical softening and effacement 3. Weight gain 4. Rupture of membranes 5. Sudden loss of energy A client arrives in the labor and delivery unit and describes her contractions as occurring every 10-12 minutes, lasting 30 seconds. She is smiling and very excited about the possibility of being in labor. On exam, her cervix is dilated 2 cm, 100% effaced, and -2 station. What best describes this labor? 1. Second phase 2. Latent phase 3. Active phase 4. Transition phase The client has asked the nurse why her cervix has only changed from 1 to 2 cm in 3 hours of contractions occurring every 5 minutes. What is the nurse's best response to the client? 1. "Your cervix has also effaced, or thinned out, and that change in the cervix is also labor progress." 2. "When your perineal body thins out, your cervix will begin to dilate much faster than it is now." 3. "What did you expect? You've only had contractions for a few hours. Labor takes time." 4. "The hormones that cause labor to begin are just getting to be at levels that will change your cervix." A woman who is 40 weeks pregnant calls the labor suite to ask whether she should be evaluated. Which statements by the client indicate she is likely in labor? Select all that apply. 1. "The contractions are 5-20 minutes apart." 2. "I had pink discharge on the toilet paper." 3. "I have had cramping for the past 3-4 hours." 4. "The contractions start in my back and then go to my abdomen and are very intense." 5. "The contractions hurt more when I walk." To identify the duration of a contraction, the nurse would do which of the following? 1. Start timing from the beginning of one contraction to the completion of the same contraction. 2. Time between the beginning of one contraction and the beginning of the next contraction. 3. Palpate for the strength of the contraction at its peak. 4. Time from the beginning of the contraction to the peak of the same contraction. The client at 40 weeks' gestation reports to the nurse that she has had increased pelvic pressure and increased urinary frequency. Which response by the nurse is best? 1. "Unless you have pain with urination, we don't need to worry about it." 2. "These symptoms usually mean the baby's head has descended further." 3. "Come in for an appointment today and we'll check everything out." 4. "This might indicate that the baby is no longer in a head-down position." The client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the clinic and reports increased bladder pressure but easier breathing and irregular, mild contractions. She also states that she just cleaned the entire house. Which statement should the nurse make? 1. "You shouldn't work so much at this point in pregnancy." 2. "What you are describing is not commonly experienced in the last weeks." 3. "Your body may be telling you it is going into labor soon." 4. "If the bladder pressure continues, come in to the clinic tomorrow." A client calls the labor and delivery unit and tells the nurse that she is 39 weeks pregnant and that over the last 4 or 5 days, she has noticed that although her breathing has become easier, she is having leg cramps, a slight amount of edema in her lower legs, and an increased amount of vaginal secretions. The nurse tells the client that she has experienced which of the following? 1. Engagement 2. Lightening 3. Molding 4. Braxton Hicks contractions A client who is having false labor most likely would have which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Contractions that do not intensify while walking 2. An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions 3. Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation 4. Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate 5. Contractions that lessen with rest and warm tub baths The nurse is preparing a client education handout on the differences between false labor and true labor. What information is most important for the nurse to include? 1. True labor contractions begin in the back and sweep toward the front. 2. False labor often feels like abdominal tightening, or "balling up." 3. True labor can be diagnosed only if cervical change occurs. 4. False labor contractions do not increase in intensity or duration. The nurse is teaching a prenatal class about false labor. The nurse should teach clients that false labor most likely will include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Contractions that do not intensify while walking 2. An increase in the intensity and frequency of contractions 3. Progressive cervical effacement and dilatation 4. Pain in the abdomen that does not radiate 5. Contractions are at regular intervals A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions that are 2 minutes apart, lasting 60 seconds. She reports that she had bloody show earlier that morning. A vaginal exam reveals that her cervix is 100 percent effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse knows that the client is in which phase of labor? 1. Active 2. Latent 3. Transition 4. Fourth A client is admitted to the labor unit with contractions 1-2 minutes apart lasting 60-90 seconds. The client is apprehensive and irritable. This client is most likely in what phase of labor? 1. Active 2. Transition 3. Latent 4. Second The client in early labor asks the nurse what the contractions are like as labor progresses. What would the nurse respond? 1. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become less frequent." 2. "In ormal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become less painful. 3. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become longer in duration." 4. "In normal labor, as the uterine contractions become stronger, they usually also become shorter in duration." Four minutes after the birth of a baby, there is a sudden gush of blood from the mother's vagina, and about 8 inches of umbilical cord slides out. What action should the nurse take first? 1. Place the client in McRoberts position. 2. Watch for the emergence of the placenta. 3. Prepare for the delivery of an undiagnosed twin. 4. Place the client in a supine position. A nurse needs to evaluate the progress of a woman's labor. The nurse obtains the following data: cervical dilatation 6 cm; contractions mild in intensity, occurring every 5 minutes, with a duration of 30-40 seconds. Which clue in this data does not fit the pattern suggested by the rest of the clues? 1. Cervical dilatation 6 cm 2. Mild contraction intensity 3. Contraction frequency every 5 minutes 4. Contraction duration 30-40 seconds The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which signs and symptoms would indicate the client is progressing into the second stage of labor? Select all that apply. 1. Bulging perineum 2. ncreased bloody show 3. Sontaneous rupture of the membranes 4. Unontrollable urge to push 5. Inablity to breathe through contractions The labor nurse would not encourage a mother to bear down until the cervix is completely dilated,to prevent which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Matenal exhaustion 2. Cervical edema 3. Tearing and bruising of the cervix 4. Enhanced perineal thinning 5. Having to perform an episiotomy The nurse is caring for a laboring client. A cervical exam indicates 8 cm dilation. The client is restless, frequently changing position in an attempt to get comfortable. Which nursing action is most important? 1. Leave the client alone so she can rest. 2. Ask the family to take a coffee-and-snack break. 3. Encourage the client to have an epidural for pain. 4. Reassure the client that she will not be left alone. During the fourth stage of labor, the client's assessment includes a BP of 110/60, pulse 90, and the fundus is firm midline and halfway between the symphysis pubis and the umbilicus. What is the priority action of the nurse? 1. Turn the client onto her left side. 2. Place the bed in Trendelenburg position. 3. Massage the fundus. 4. Continue to monitor. The nurse has just palpated a laboring woman's contractions. The uterus cannot be indented during a contraction. What would the intensity of these contractions best be characterized as? 1. Weak 2. Mild 3. Moderate 4. Strong The labor and delivery nurse is reviewing charts. The nurse should inform the supervisor about which client? 1. Client at 5 cm requesting labor epidural analgesia 2. Client whose cervix remains at 6 cm for 4 hours 3. Client who has developed nausea and vomiting 4. Client requesting her partner to stay with her Which client requires immediate intervention by the labor and delivery nurse? 1. Client at 8 cm, systolic blood pressure has increased 35 mm Hg 2. Client who delivered 1 hour ago with WBC of 50,000 3. Client at 5 cm with a respiratory rate of 22 between contractions 4. Client in active labor with polyuria The labor and delivery nurse is preparing a prenatal class about facilitating the progress of labor. Which of the following frequent responses to pain should the nurse indicate is most likely to impede progress in labor? 1. Increased pulse 2. Elevated blood pressure 3. Muscle tension 4. Increased respirations While caring for a client in labor, the nurse notices during a vaginal exam that the fetus's head has rotated internally. What would the nurse expect the next set of cardinal movements for a fetusin a vertex presentation to be? 1. Fleion, extension, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion 2. Explsion, external rotation, and restitution 3. Restiution, flexion, external rotation, and expulsion 4. Extenion, restitution, external rotation, and expulsion When comparing the anterior and posterior fontanelles of a newborn, the nurse knows that both are hat? 1. Both areapproximately the same size 2. Both clos within 12 months of birth 3. Both are ued in labor to identify station 4. Both allow or assessing the status of the newborn after birth The nurse is aware that labor and birth will most likely proceed normally when the fetus is in what position? 1. Right-acromion-dorsal-anterior 2. Right-sacrum-transverse 3. Occiput anterior 4. Posterior position The midwife performs a vaginal exam and determines that the fetal head is at a -2 station. What does this indicate to the nurse about the birth? 1. The birth is imminent. 2. The birth is likely to occur in 1-2 hours. 3. The birth will occur later in the shift. 4. The birth is difficult to predict. Childbirth preparation offers several advantages including which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. It helps a pregnant woman and her support person understand the choices in the birth setting. 2. It promotes awareness of available options. 3. It provides tools for a pregnant woman and her support person to use during labor and birth. 4. Women who receive continuous support during labor require more analgesia, and have more cesarean and instrument births. 5. Each method has been shown to shorten labor. The nurse determines that a client is carrying her fetus in the vertical (longitudinal) lie. The nurse's judgment should be questioned if the fetal presenting part is which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Sacrum 2. Left arm 3. Mentum 4. Left scapula 5. Right scapula The nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit. What question should the nurse ask to gain a better understanding of the client's psychosocial status? 1. "How did you decide to have your baby at this hospital?" 2. "Who will be your labor support person?" 3. "Have you chosen names for your baby yet?" 4. "What feeding method will you use for your baby?" The nurse is admitting a client to the labor and delivery unit. Which aspect of the client's history requires notifying the physician? 1. Blood pressure 120/88 2. Father a carrier of sickle-cell trait 3. Dark red vaginal bleeding 4. History of domestic abuse The nurse is working with a pregnant adolescent. The client asks the nurse how the baby's condition is determined during labor. The nurse's best response is that during labor, the nurse will do which of the following? 1. Check the client's cervix by doing a pelvic exam every 2 hours. 2. Assess the fetus's heart rate with an electronic fetal monitor. 3. Look at the color and amount of bloody show that the client has. 4. Verify that the client's contractions are strong but not too close together. During the initial intrapartal assessment of a client in early labor, the nurse performs a vaginal examination. The client's partner asks why this pelvic exam needs to be done. The nurse should explain that the purpose of the vaginal exam is to obtain information about which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Uterine contraction pattern 2. Fetal position 3. Presence of the mucous plug 4. Cervical dilation and effacement 5. Presenting part A client has just arrived in the birthing unit. What steps would be most important for the nurse to perform to gain an understanding of the physical status of the client and her fetus? Select all that apply. 1. Check for ruptured membranes and apply a fetal scalp electrode. 2. Auscultate the fetal heart rate between and during contractions. 3. Palpate contractions and resting uterine tone. 4. Assess the blood pressure, temperature, respiratory rate, and pulse rate. 5. Perform a vaginal exam for cervical dilation, and perform Leopold maneuvers. The nurse is preparing to assess a laboring client who has just arrived in the labor and birth unit. Which statement by the client indicates that additional education is needed? 1. "You are going to do a vaginal exam to see how dilated my cervix is." 2. "The reason for a pelvic exam is to determine how low in the pelvis my baby is." 3. "When you check my cervix, you will find out how thinned out it is." 4. "After you assess my pelvis, you will be able to tell when I will deliver." The client has been pushing for 3 hours, and the fetus is making a slow descent. The partner asks the nurse whether pushing for this long is normal. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Your baby is taking a little longer than average, but is making progress." 2. "First babies take a long time to be born. The next baby will be easier." 3. "The birth would go faster if you had taken prenatal classes and practiced." 4. "Every baby is different; there really are no norms for labor and birth." During a maternal assessment, the nurse determines the fetus to be in a left occiput anterior (LOA) position. Auscultation of the fetal heart rate should begin in what quadrant? 1. Right upper quadrant 2. Left upper quadrant 3. Right lower quadrant 4. Left lower quadrant A laboring client asks the nurse, "Why does the physician want to use an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC) during my labor?" The nurse would accurately explain that the best rationale for using an IUPC is which of the following? 1. The IUPC can be used throughout the birth process. 2. A tocodynamometer is invasive. 3. The IUPC provides more accurate data than does the tocodynamometer. 4. The tocodynamometer can be used only after the cervix is dilated 2 cm. The charge nurse is looking at the charts of laboring clients. Which client is in greatest need of further intervention? 1. Woman at 7 cm, fetal heart tones auscultated every 90 minutes 2. Woman at 10 cm and pushing, external fetal monitor applied 3. Woman with meconium-stained fluid, internal fetal scalp electrode in use 4. Woman in preterm labor, external monitor in place The laboring client with meconium-stained amniotic fluid asks the nurse why the fetal monitor is necessary, as she finds the belt uncomfortable. Which response by the nurse is most important? 1. "The monitor is necessary so we can see how your labor is progressing." 2. "The monitor will prevent complications from the meconium in your fluid." 3. "The monitor helps us to see how the baby is tolerating labor." 4. "The monitor can be removed, and oxygen given instead." The nurse has just palpated contractions and compares the consistency to that of the forehead to estimate the firmness of the fundus. What would the intensity of these contractions be identified as? 1. Mild 2. Moderate 3. Strong 4. Weak Before performing Leopold maneuvers, what would the nurse do? Select all that apply. 1. Have the client empty her bladder. 2. Place the client in Trendelenburg position. 3. Have the client lie on her back with her feet on the bed and knees bent. 4. Turn the client to her left side. 5. Have the client lie flat with her ankles crossed. The student nurse is to perform Leopold maneuvers on a laboring client. Which assessment requires intervention by the staff nurse? 1. The client is assisted into supine position, and the position of the fetus is assessed. 2. The upper portion of the uterus is palpated, then the middle section. 3. After determining where the back is located, the cervix is assessed. 4. Following voiding, the client's abdomen is palpated from top to bottom. The nurse is preparing to assess the fetus of a laboring client. Which assessment should the nurse perform first? 1. Perform Leopold maneuvers to determine fetal position. 2. Count the fetal heart rate between, during, and for 30 seconds following a uterine contraction (UC). 3. Dry the maternal abdomen before using the Doppler. 4. The diaphragm should be cooled before using the Doppler. After several hours of labor, the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) shows repetitive variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. The nurse would interpret the decelerations to be consistent with which of the following? 1. Breech presentation 2. Uteroplacental insufficiency 3. Compression of the fetal head 4. Umbilical cord compression The nurse auscultates the FHR and determines a rate of 112 beats/min. Which action is appropriate? 1. Inform the maternal client that the rate is normal. 2. Reassess the FHR in 5 minutes because the rate is low. 3. Report the FHR to the doctor immediately. 4. Turn the maternal client on her side and administer oxygen. Upon assessing the FHR tracing, the nurse determines that there is fetal tachycardia. The fetal tachycardia would be caused by which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Early fetalhypoxia 2. Prolonged fetal stimulation 3. Fetal anemia 4. Fetal sleep cycle 5. Infection Persistent early decelerations are noted. What would the nurse's first action be? 1. Turn the mother on her left side and give oxygen. 2. Check for prolapsed cord. 3. Do nothing. This is a benign pattern. 4. Prepare for immediate forceps or cesarean delivery. The laboring client's fetal heart rate baseline is 120 beats per minute. Accelerations are present to 135 beats/min. During contractions, the fetal heart rate gradually slows to 110, and is at 120 by the end of the contraction. What nursing action is best? 1. Document the fetal heart rate. 2. Apply oxygen via mask at 10 liters. 3. Prepare for imminent delivery. 4. Assist the client into Fowler's position. The nurse is caring for a client who is having fetal tachycardia. The nurse knows that possible causes include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Maternal dehydration 2. Maternal hyperthyroidism 3. Fetal hypoxia 4. Prematurity 5. Anesthesia or regional analgesia The nurse is teaching a class on reading a fetal monitor to nursing students. The nurse explains that bradycardia is a fetal heart rate baseline below 110 and can be caused by which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Maternal hypotension 2. Prolonged umbilical cord compression 3. Fetal dysrhythmia 4. Central nervous system malformation 5. Late fetal asphyxia The nurse is caring for a client in the transition phase of labor and notes that the fetal monitor tracing shows average short-term and long-term variability with a baseline of 142 beats per minute. What actions should the nurse take in this situation? Select all that apply. 1. Provide caring labor support. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask. 3. Change the client's position. 4. Speed up the client's intravenous. 5. Reassure the client and her partner that she is doing fine. A woman is in labor. The fetus is in vertex position. When the client's membranes rupture, the nurse sees that the amniotic fluid is meconium-stained. What should the nurse do immediately? 1. Change the client's position in bed. 2. Notify the physician that birth is imminent. 3. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per minute. 4. Begin continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. A woman in labor asks the nurse to explain the electronic fetal heart rate monitor strip. The fetal heart rate baseline is 150 with accelerations to 165, variable decelerations to 140, and moderate long-term variability. Which statement indicates that the client understands the nurse's teaching? 1. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the absence of variable decelerations." 2. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the presence of variability." 3. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the fetal heart rate baseline." 4. "The most important part of fetal heart monitoring is the depth of decelerations." The fetal heart rate baseline is 140 beats/min. When contractions begin, the fetal heart rate drops suddenly to 120, and rapidly returns to 140 before the end of the contraction. Which nursing intervention is best? 1. Assist the client to change position. 2. Apply oxygen to the client at 2 liters per nasal cannula. 3. Notify the operating room of the need for a cesarean birth. 4. Determine the color of the leaking amniotic fluid. The nurse is caring for a client who is showing a sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern on the monitor. The nurse knows that possible causes for this pattern include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Fetal anemia 2. Chronic fetal bleeding 3. Maternal hypotension 4. Twin-to-twin transfusion 5. Umbilical cord occlusion Fetal factors that possibly indicate electronic fetal monitoring include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Meconium passage 2. Multiple gestation 3. Preeclampsia 4. Grand multiparity 5. Decreased fetal movement The labor and delivery nurse is assigned to four clients in early labor. Which electronic fetal monitoring finding would require immediate intervention? 1. Early decelerations with each contraction 2. Variable decelerations that recover to the baseline 3. Late decelerations with minimal variability 4. Accelerations The nurse is analyzing several fetal heart rate patterns. The pattern that would be of most concern to the nurse would be which of the following? 1. Moderate variability 2. Early decelerations 3. Late decelerations 4. Accelerations After noting meconium-stained amniotic fluid and fetal heart rate decelerations, the physician diagnoses a depressed fetus. The appropriate nursing action at this time would be to do what? 1. Increase the mother's oxygen rate. 2. Turn the mother to the left lateral position. 3. Prepare the mother for a higher-risk delivery. 4. Increase the intravenous infusion rate. The nurse is aware that a fetus that is not in any stress would respond to a fetal scalp stimulation test by showing which change on the monitor strip? 1. Late decelerations 2. Early decelerations 3. Accelerations 4. Fetal dysrhythmia The client is in the second stage of labor. The fetal heart rate baseline is 170, with minimal variability present. The nurse performs fetal scalp stimulation. The client's partner asks why the nurse did that. What is the best response by the nurse? 1. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to wake him up a little." 2. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to try to get his heart rate to accelerate." 3. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to calm the fetus down before birth." 4. "I stimulated the top of the fetus's head to find out whether he is in distress." The primary care provider is performing a fetal scalp stimulation test. What result would the nurse hope to observe? Select all that apply. 1. Spontaneous fetal movement 2. Fetal heart acceleration 3. Increase in fetal heart variability 4. Resolution of late decelerations 5. Reactivity associated with the stimulation The laboring client is at 7 cm, with the vertex at a +1 station. Her birth plan indicates that she and her partner took Lamaze prenatal classes, and they have planned on a natural, unmedicated birth. Her contractions are every 3 minutes and last 60 seconds. She has used relaxation and breathing techniques very successfully in her labor until the last 15 minutes. Now, during contractions, she is writhing on the bed and screaming. Her labor partner is rubbing the client's back and speaking to her quietly. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse incorporate into the plan of care for this client? 1. Fear/Anxiety related to discomfort of labor and unknown labor outcome 2. Pain, Acute, related to uterine contractions, cervical dilatation, and fetal descent 3. Coping: Family, Compromised, related to labor process 4. Knowledge, Deficient, related to lack of information about normal labor process and comfort measures A client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit with contractions that are regular, are 2 minutes apart, and last 60 seconds. She reports that her labor began about 6 hours ago, and she had bloody show earlier that morning. A vaginal exam reveals a vertex presenting, with the cervix 100% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The client asks what part of labor she is in. The nurse should inform the client that she is in what phase of labor? 1. Latent phase 2. Active phase 3. Transition phase 4. Fourth stage Usually, the family is advised to arrive at the birth setting at the beginning of the active phase of labor or when which of the following occur? Select all that apply. 1. Rupture of membranes (ROM) 2. Increased fetal movement 3. Decreased fetal movement 4. Any vaginal bleeding 5. Regular, frequent uterine contractions (UCs) The client presents to the labor and delivery unit stating that her water broke 2 hours ago. Barring any abnormalities, how often would the nurse expect to take the client's temperature? 1. Every hour 2. Every 2 hours 3. Every 4 hours 4. Every shift The nurse is orienting a new graduate nurse to the labor and birth unit. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "When a client arrives in labor, a urine specimen is obtained by catheter to check for protein and ketones." 2. "When a client arrives in labor, she will be positioned supine to facilitate a normal blood pressure." 3. "When a client arrives in labor, her prenatal record is reviewed for indications of domestic abuse." 4. "When a client arrives in labor, a vaginal exam is performed unless birth appears to be imminent." The client presents to the labor and delivery unit stating that her water broke 2 hours ago. Indicators of normal labor include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Fetal heart rate of 130 with average variability 2. Blood pressure of 130/80 3. Maternal pulse of 160 4. Protein of +1 in urine 5. Odorless, clear fluid on underwear The client is being admitted to the birthing unit. As the nurse begins the assessment, the client's partner asks why the fetus's heart rate will be monitored. After the nurse explains, which statement by the partner indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "The fetus's heart rate will vary between 110 and 160." 2. "The heart rate is monitored to see whether the fetus is tolerating labor." 3. "By listening to the heart, we can tell the gender of the fetus." 4. "After listening to the heart rate, you will contact the midwife." The nurse has completed the physical assessment of a client in early labor, and proceeds with the social assessment. A social history of the client would include which of the following? Select all that apply. 1. Use of drugs and alcohol 2. Family violence or sexual assault 3. Current living situation 4. Type of insurance 5. Availability of resources A first-time 22-year-old single labor client, accompanied by her boyfriend, is admitted to the labor unit with ruptured membranes and mild to moderate contractions. She is determined to be 2 centimeters dilated. Which nursing diagnoses might apply during the current stage of labor? Select all that apply. 1. Fear/Anxiety related to discomfort of labor and unknown labor outcome 2. Knowledge, Deficient, related to lack of information about pushing methods 3. Pain, Acute, related to uterine contractions, cervical dilatation, and fetal descent 4. Pain, Acute, related to perineal trauma 5. Coping: Family, Compromised, related to labor process The laboring client and her partner have arrived at the birthing unit. Which step of the admission process should be undertaken first? 1. The sterile vaginal exam 2. Welcoming the couple 3. Auscultation of the fetal heart rate 4. Checking for ruptured membranes An expectant father has been at the bedside of his laboring partner for more than 12 hours. An appropriate nursing intervention would be to do which of the following? 1. Insist that he leave the room for at least the next hour. 2. Tell him he is not being as effective as he was, and that he needs to let someone else take over. 3. Offer to remain with his partner while he takes a break. 4. Suggest that the client's mother might be of more help. By inquiring about the expectations and plans that a laboring woman and her partner have for the labor and birth, the nurse is primarily doing which of the following? 1. Recognizing the client as an active participant in her own care. 2. Attempting to correct any misinformation the client might have received. 3. Acting as an advocate for the client. 4. Establishing rapport with the client. The labor and birth nurse is admitting a client. The nurse's assessment includes asking the client whom she would like to have present for the labor and birth, and what the client would prefer to wear. The client's partner asks the nurse the reason for these questions. What would the nurse's best response be? Select all that apply 1. "These questions are asked of all women. It's no big deal." 2. "I'd prefer that your partner ask me all the questions, not you." 3. "A client's preferences for her birth are important for me to understand." 4. "Many women have beliefs about childbearing that affect these choices." 5. "I'm gathering information that the nurses will use after the birth." The laboring client presses the call light and reports that her water has just broken. What would the nurse's first action be? 1. Check fetal heart tones. 2. Encourage the mother to go for a walk. 3. Change bed linens. 4. Call the physician. The laboring client is having moderately strong contractions lasting 60 seconds every 3 minutes. The fetal head is presenting at a -2 station. The cervix is 6 cm and 100% effaced. The membranes spontaneously ruptured prior to admission, and clear fluid is leaking. Fetal heart tones are in the 140s with accelerations to 150. Which nursing action has the highest priority? 1. Encourage the husband to remain in the room. 2. Keep the client on bed rest at this time. 3. Apply an internal fetal scalp electrode. 4. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. The client has stated that she wants to avoid an epidural and would like an unmedicated birth. Which nursing action is most important for this client? 1. Encourage the client to vocalize during contractions. 2. Perform vaginal exams only between contractions. 3. Provide a CD of soft music with sounds of nature. 4. Offer to teach the partner how to massage tense muscles. The nurse is aware of the different breathing techniques that are used during labor. Why are breathing techniques used during labor? Select all that apply. 1. They are a form of anesthesia. 2. They are a source of relaxation. 3. They increase the ability to cope with contractions. 4. They are a source of distraction. 5. They increase a woman's pain threshold. Two hours after delivery, a client's fundus is boggy and has risen to above the umbilicus. What is the first action the nurse would take? 1. Massage the fundus until firm 2. Express retained clots 3. Increase the intravenous solution 4. Call the physician Why is it important for the nurse to assess the bladder regularly and encourage the laboring client to void frequently? 1. A full bladder impedes oxygen flow to the fetus. 2. Frequent voiding prevents bruising of the bladder. 3. Frequent voiding encourages sphincter control. 4. A full bladder can impede fetal descent. The laboring client is complaining of tingling and numbness in her fingers and toes, dizziness, and spots before her eyes. The nurse recognizes that these are clinical manifest