NUR 2790 Professional Nursing III (PN3) Practice Exam Questions and
Verified Answers and Rationales | Latest Update
1. A patient presents to the emergency department with deep partial-thickness
burns to the entire left arm and the anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines,
what is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) burned?
A. 27%
B. 18%
C. 36%
D. 45%
Answer: A
Rationale: The Rule of Nines assigns 9% to the entire arm and 18% to the anterior trunk. 9
+ 18 = 27%.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
clinical finding is most characteristic of this stage?
A. Cold, clammy skin
B. Decreased urinary output
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Answer: D
,Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body attempts to maintain cardiac
output, often resulting in narrowed pulse pressure. Cold skin and significant oliguria
usually occur in the progressive stage.
3. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse expect to see in a
patient with early-stage Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 30, HCO3 22
B. pH 7.30, PaCO2 55, HCO3 26
C. pH 7.35, PaCO2 40, HCO3 24
D. pH 7.25, PaCO2 35, HCO3 18
Answer: A
Rationale: Early ARDS often results in hyperventilation as the body tries to compensate for
hypoxia, leading to respiratory alkalosis (high pH, low PaCO2).
4. A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury reports a sudden, throbbing headache
and is found to have a blood pressure of 190/100 mmHg. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Check the patient’s bladder for distension
B. Administer an antihypertensive medication
C. Place the patient in a supine position
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Answer: A
,Rationale: These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. The priority is to sit the patient up
and identify/remove the stimulus, most commonly a full bladder or impacted bowel.
5. The nurse is evaluating the EKG of a patient and notes a sawtooth pattern of
P-waves. Which rhythm does this describe?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Ventricular Tachycardia
C. Atrial Flutter
D. Sinus Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial Flutter is characterized by ‘F’ waves that have a classic sawtooth
appearance.
6. Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for a patient
experiencing anaphylactic shock?
A. Epinephrine
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Albuterol
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is the gold standard for anaphylaxis to reverse airway constriction
and maintain blood pressure.
, 7. A patient is admitted with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which lab value
would the nurse expect to see?
A. Serum glucose 800 mg/dL, pH 7.40, negative ketones
B. Serum glucose 250 mg/dL, pH 7.28, positive ketones
C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL, pH 7.35, negative ketones
D. Serum glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.50, positive ketones
Answer: B
Rationale: DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia (usually >250), metabolic acidosis (pH
<7.35), and the presence of ketones.
8. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is
the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Potassium is released from damaged cells into the extracellular fluid during the
emergent burn phase, leading to hyperkalemia.
Verified Answers and Rationales | Latest Update
1. A patient presents to the emergency department with deep partial-thickness
burns to the entire left arm and the anterior trunk. Using the Rule of Nines,
what is the estimated total body surface area (TBSA) burned?
A. 27%
B. 18%
C. 36%
D. 45%
Answer: A
Rationale: The Rule of Nines assigns 9% to the entire arm and 18% to the anterior trunk. 9
+ 18 = 27%.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
clinical finding is most characteristic of this stage?
A. Cold, clammy skin
B. Decreased urinary output
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Narrowed pulse pressure
Answer: D
,Rationale: In the compensatory stage of shock, the body attempts to maintain cardiac
output, often resulting in narrowed pulse pressure. Cold skin and significant oliguria
usually occur in the progressive stage.
3. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) result would the nurse expect to see in a
patient with early-stage Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 30, HCO3 22
B. pH 7.30, PaCO2 55, HCO3 26
C. pH 7.35, PaCO2 40, HCO3 24
D. pH 7.25, PaCO2 35, HCO3 18
Answer: A
Rationale: Early ARDS often results in hyperventilation as the body tries to compensate for
hypoxia, leading to respiratory alkalosis (high pH, low PaCO2).
4. A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury reports a sudden, throbbing headache
and is found to have a blood pressure of 190/100 mmHg. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Check the patient’s bladder for distension
B. Administer an antihypertensive medication
C. Place the patient in a supine position
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Answer: A
,Rationale: These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia. The priority is to sit the patient up
and identify/remove the stimulus, most commonly a full bladder or impacted bowel.
5. The nurse is evaluating the EKG of a patient and notes a sawtooth pattern of
P-waves. Which rhythm does this describe?
A. Atrial Fibrillation
B. Ventricular Tachycardia
C. Atrial Flutter
D. Sinus Bradycardia
Answer: C
Rationale: Atrial Flutter is characterized by ‘F’ waves that have a classic sawtooth
appearance.
6. Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for a patient
experiencing anaphylactic shock?
A. Epinephrine
B. Methylprednisolone
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Albuterol
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is the gold standard for anaphylaxis to reverse airway constriction
and maintain blood pressure.
, 7. A patient is admitted with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which lab value
would the nurse expect to see?
A. Serum glucose 800 mg/dL, pH 7.40, negative ketones
B. Serum glucose 250 mg/dL, pH 7.28, positive ketones
C. Serum glucose 110 mg/dL, pH 7.35, negative ketones
D. Serum glucose 400 mg/dL, pH 7.50, positive ketones
Answer: B
Rationale: DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia (usually >250), metabolic acidosis (pH
<7.35), and the presence of ketones.
8. During the emergent phase of a burn injury, which electrolyte imbalance is
the nurse most likely to observe?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: Potassium is released from damaged cells into the extracellular fluid during the
emergent burn phase, leading to hyperkalemia.
