NUR 2790 Professional Nursing III Final Exam Questions and Verified
Answers and Rationales | Latest Update
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 60
mmHg. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the IV fluid rate as ordered
B. Document the finding as normal
C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
D. Administer a PRN sedative
Answer: A
Rationale: A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is generally required to maintain adequate tissue
perfusion. A MAP of 60 indicates poor perfusion, necessitating intervention like IV fluids.
2. When a ventilator’s high-pressure alarm sounds, which of the following is a
potential cause?
A. Disconnection of the circuit
B. A leak in the ET tube cuff
C. Extubation of the patient
D. The patient is biting the ET tube
Answer: D
,Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as secretions,
kinking, or the patient biting the tube. Disconnections cause low-pressure alarms.
3. The nurse is assessing a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
finding is expected?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased urinary output
C. Cool, clammy skin
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, blood is shunted from the periphery to vital organs,
leading to cool, clammy skin and tachycardia.
4. A patient with ARDS is being placed in the prone position. What is the
primary goal of this intervention?
A. To decrease the work of breathing
B. To improve oxygenation by recruiting alveoli
C. To prevent skin breakdown on the back
D. To facilitate easier oral care
Answer: B
,Rationale: Prone positioning improves oxygenation in ARDS patients by improving
ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching and recruiting collapsed alveoli in posterior lung
segments.
5. Which laboratory value is most indicative of Disseminated Intravascular
Coagulation (DIC)?
A. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Increased Fibrinogen
C. Decreased D-dimer
D. Increased Platelet count
Answer: A
Rationale: DIC involves the consumption of clotting factors and platelets, leading to
prolonged PT/PTT and decreased fibrinogen and platelets.
6. A patient exhibits Sinus Bradycardia with a heart rate of 38 bpm and is
symptomatic. What is the first-line medication?
A. Amiodarone
B. Epinephrine
C. Digoxin
D. Atropine
Answer: D
, Rationale: Atropine is the primary drug used to increase heart rate in symptomatic
bradycardia.
7. For a patient in Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), which action should the nurse
perform first?
A. Administer Epinephrine
B. Perform synchronized cardioversion
C. Initiate CPR and prepare for defibrillation
D. Check for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds
Answer: C
Rationale: VF is a pulseless rhythm. Immediate CPR and rapid defibrillation are the
priority treatments.
8. The nurse notes ‘failure to capture’ on a patient’s cardiac monitor who has a
permanent pacemaker. What does this mean?
A. The pacemaker is not sensing the patient’s heart rate
B. The pacer is firing too slowly
C. The pacer spike is present, but no QRS follows
D. The battery is dead
Answer: C
Rationale: Failure to capture occurs when the pacemaker sends an electrical impulse
(spike) but the myocardium does not depolarize (no QRS).
Answers and Rationales | Latest Update
1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 60
mmHg. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the IV fluid rate as ordered
B. Document the finding as normal
C. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position
D. Administer a PRN sedative
Answer: A
Rationale: A MAP of at least 65 mmHg is generally required to maintain adequate tissue
perfusion. A MAP of 60 indicates poor perfusion, necessitating intervention like IV fluids.
2. When a ventilator’s high-pressure alarm sounds, which of the following is a
potential cause?
A. Disconnection of the circuit
B. A leak in the ET tube cuff
C. Extubation of the patient
D. The patient is biting the ET tube
Answer: D
,Rationale: High-pressure alarms are triggered by increased resistance, such as secretions,
kinking, or the patient biting the tube. Disconnections cause low-pressure alarms.
3. The nurse is assessing a patient in the compensatory stage of shock. Which
finding is expected?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased urinary output
C. Cool, clammy skin
D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C
Rationale: In the compensatory stage, blood is shunted from the periphery to vital organs,
leading to cool, clammy skin and tachycardia.
4. A patient with ARDS is being placed in the prone position. What is the
primary goal of this intervention?
A. To decrease the work of breathing
B. To improve oxygenation by recruiting alveoli
C. To prevent skin breakdown on the back
D. To facilitate easier oral care
Answer: B
,Rationale: Prone positioning improves oxygenation in ARDS patients by improving
ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching and recruiting collapsed alveoli in posterior lung
segments.
5. Which laboratory value is most indicative of Disseminated Intravascular
Coagulation (DIC)?
A. Prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Increased Fibrinogen
C. Decreased D-dimer
D. Increased Platelet count
Answer: A
Rationale: DIC involves the consumption of clotting factors and platelets, leading to
prolonged PT/PTT and decreased fibrinogen and platelets.
6. A patient exhibits Sinus Bradycardia with a heart rate of 38 bpm and is
symptomatic. What is the first-line medication?
A. Amiodarone
B. Epinephrine
C. Digoxin
D. Atropine
Answer: D
, Rationale: Atropine is the primary drug used to increase heart rate in symptomatic
bradycardia.
7. For a patient in Ventricular Fibrillation (VF), which action should the nurse
perform first?
A. Administer Epinephrine
B. Perform synchronized cardioversion
C. Initiate CPR and prepare for defibrillation
D. Check for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds
Answer: C
Rationale: VF is a pulseless rhythm. Immediate CPR and rapid defibrillation are the
priority treatments.
8. The nurse notes ‘failure to capture’ on a patient’s cardiac monitor who has a
permanent pacemaker. What does this mean?
A. The pacemaker is not sensing the patient’s heart rate
B. The pacer is firing too slowly
C. The pacer spike is present, but no QRS follows
D. The battery is dead
Answer: C
Rationale: Failure to capture occurs when the pacemaker sends an electrical impulse
(spike) but the myocardium does not depolarize (no QRS).
