Fisdap Cardiology Review
(Paramedic) 2026 Exam
Questions and Answers | 100%
Solved
You respond to a residence for a 68-year-old male with nausea, vomiting,
and blurred vision. As you are assessing him, he tells you that he has
congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation, and takes numerous
medications. The cardiac monitor reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular
rate of 50 beats/min. Which of the following medications is MOST likely
,responsible for this patient's clinical presentation? - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔Digoxin.
This patient has classic signs of digitalis toxicity. Digoxin is commonly
prescribed to patients with congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation (A-
Fib) or atrial flutter (A-Flutter). Its positive inotropic effects increase cardiac
contractility and maintain cardiac output, while its negative chronotropic
effects control the ventricular rate of the A-Fib or A-Flutter. Digitalis
preparations (ie, Lanoxin, Digoxin) have a narrow therapeutic index—that
is, there is a fine line between a therapeutic and toxic dose. You should
suspect digitalis toxicity in any patient who takes Digoxin or Lanoxin and
presents with complaints such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain,
anorexia, or blurred/yellow vision. Additionally, virtually any cardiac
dysrhythmia can be caused by the toxic effects of digitalis. Treatment
involves the administration of Digibind, which is given at the hospital.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for fibrinolytic
therapy? - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔Subdural hematoma 3 years ago.
,According to current emergency cardiac care (ECC) guidelines, absolute
contraindications for fibrinolytic therapy include ANY prior intracranial
hemorrhage (ie, subdural, epidural, intracerebral hematoma); known
structural cerebrovascular lesion (ie, arteriovenous malformation); known
malignant intracranial tumor (primary or metastatic); ischemic stroke within
the past 3 months, EXCEPT for acute ischemic stroke within the past 3
hours; suspected aortic dissection; active bleeding or bleeding disorders
(except menses); and significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within
the past 3 months. Relative contraindications (eg, the physician may deem
fibrinolytic therapy appropriate under certain circumstances) include, a
history of chronic, severe, poorly-controlled hypertension; severe
uncontrolled hypertension on presentation (SBP > 180 mm Hg or DBP >
110 mm Hg); ischemic stroke greater than 3 months ago; dementia;
traumatic or prolonged (> 10 minutes) CPR or major surgery within the past
3 weeks; recent (within 2 to 4 weeks) internal bleeding; noncompressible
vascular punctures; pregnancy; prior exposure (> 5 days ago) or prior
allergic reaction to streptokinase or anistreplase; active peptic ulcer; and
current use of anticoagulants (ie, Coumadin).
A middle-aged man presents with chest discomfort, shortness of breath,
and nausea. You give him supplemental oxygen and continue your
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STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
3
, assessment. As your partner is attaching the ECG leads, you should: - 🧠
ANSWER ✔✔Administer up to 325 mg of aspirin.
Since oxygen has already been administered to this patient and your
partner is attaching the ECG leads, you should administer aspirin (160 to
325 mg, non-enteric-coated). Early administration of aspirin has clearly
been shown to reduce mortality and morbidity in patients experiencing an
acute coronary syndrome (ACS). After establishing vascular access, you
should assess his vital signs and then administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin
(up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart), provided that his systolic BP is greater
than 90 mm Hg. If 3 doses of nitroglycerin fail to completely relieve his
chest discomfort, consider administering 2 to 4 mg of morphine IV,
provided that his systolic BP remains above 90 mm Hg.
Which of the following ECG lead configurations is correct? - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔To assess lead II, place the negative lead on the right arm and the
positive lead on the left leg.
(Paramedic) 2026 Exam
Questions and Answers | 100%
Solved
You respond to a residence for a 68-year-old male with nausea, vomiting,
and blurred vision. As you are assessing him, he tells you that he has
congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation, and takes numerous
medications. The cardiac monitor reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular
rate of 50 beats/min. Which of the following medications is MOST likely
,responsible for this patient's clinical presentation? - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔Digoxin.
This patient has classic signs of digitalis toxicity. Digoxin is commonly
prescribed to patients with congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation (A-
Fib) or atrial flutter (A-Flutter). Its positive inotropic effects increase cardiac
contractility and maintain cardiac output, while its negative chronotropic
effects control the ventricular rate of the A-Fib or A-Flutter. Digitalis
preparations (ie, Lanoxin, Digoxin) have a narrow therapeutic index—that
is, there is a fine line between a therapeutic and toxic dose. You should
suspect digitalis toxicity in any patient who takes Digoxin or Lanoxin and
presents with complaints such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain,
anorexia, or blurred/yellow vision. Additionally, virtually any cardiac
dysrhythmia can be caused by the toxic effects of digitalis. Treatment
involves the administration of Digibind, which is given at the hospital.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for fibrinolytic
therapy? - 🧠 ANSWER ✔✔Subdural hematoma 3 years ago.
,According to current emergency cardiac care (ECC) guidelines, absolute
contraindications for fibrinolytic therapy include ANY prior intracranial
hemorrhage (ie, subdural, epidural, intracerebral hematoma); known
structural cerebrovascular lesion (ie, arteriovenous malformation); known
malignant intracranial tumor (primary or metastatic); ischemic stroke within
the past 3 months, EXCEPT for acute ischemic stroke within the past 3
hours; suspected aortic dissection; active bleeding or bleeding disorders
(except menses); and significant closed head trauma or facial trauma within
the past 3 months. Relative contraindications (eg, the physician may deem
fibrinolytic therapy appropriate under certain circumstances) include, a
history of chronic, severe, poorly-controlled hypertension; severe
uncontrolled hypertension on presentation (SBP > 180 mm Hg or DBP >
110 mm Hg); ischemic stroke greater than 3 months ago; dementia;
traumatic or prolonged (> 10 minutes) CPR or major surgery within the past
3 weeks; recent (within 2 to 4 weeks) internal bleeding; noncompressible
vascular punctures; pregnancy; prior exposure (> 5 days ago) or prior
allergic reaction to streptokinase or anistreplase; active peptic ulcer; and
current use of anticoagulants (ie, Coumadin).
A middle-aged man presents with chest discomfort, shortness of breath,
and nausea. You give him supplemental oxygen and continue your
COPYRIGHT©NINJANERD 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2025. COMPANY REGISTRATION NUMBER: 619652435. TERMS OF USE. PRIVACY
STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
3
, assessment. As your partner is attaching the ECG leads, you should: - 🧠
ANSWER ✔✔Administer up to 325 mg of aspirin.
Since oxygen has already been administered to this patient and your
partner is attaching the ECG leads, you should administer aspirin (160 to
325 mg, non-enteric-coated). Early administration of aspirin has clearly
been shown to reduce mortality and morbidity in patients experiencing an
acute coronary syndrome (ACS). After establishing vascular access, you
should assess his vital signs and then administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin
(up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart), provided that his systolic BP is greater
than 90 mm Hg. If 3 doses of nitroglycerin fail to completely relieve his
chest discomfort, consider administering 2 to 4 mg of morphine IV,
provided that his systolic BP remains above 90 mm Hg.
Which of the following ECG lead configurations is correct? - 🧠 ANSWER
✔✔To assess lead II, place the negative lead on the right arm and the
positive lead on the left leg.
