Galen NUR 230 exam 1 ALL VERSIONS 2025 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS | VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE

1. A pregnant client has persistent vomiting with weight loss, ketonuria, and electrolyte imbalance. Which condition is most likely? A. Morning sickness B. Gastroenteritis C. Hyperemesis gravidarum D. Preeclampsia Correct Answer: C. Hyperemesis gravidarum Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum is severe, persistent vomiting during pregnancy causing weight loss, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, nutritional deficiencies, and ketonuria. 2. A client reports excessive salivation during pregnancy. The nurse documents this as: A. Pica B. Ptyalism C. Leukorrhea D. Hyperemesis Correct Answer: B. Ptyalism Rationale: Ptyalism refers to excessive salivation during pregnancy. 3. A pregnant client reports craving clay and ice. What should the nurse assess? A. Blood glucose B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit C. Thyroid levels D. Liver enzymes Correct Answer: B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit Rationale: Pica (craving non-food items) is often associated with iron-deficiency anemia; Hgb and Hct should be checked. 4. Which lab values are considered normal during pregnancy? A. Hgb 9, Hct 28 B. Hgb 10, Hct 30 C. Hgb 11, Hct 33 D. Hgb 12, Hct 25 Correct Answer: C. Hgb 11, Hct 33 Rationale: Normal pregnancy values: Hgb ≥11 and Hct ≥33. 5. Which test is routinely performed in the first trimester? A. Group B strep swab B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test C. CBC D. Biophysical profile Correct Answer: C. CBC Rationale: A CBC (Hgb & Hct) is part of standard first trimester labs. 6. Which discomfort is most common in the first trimester? A. Shortness of breath B. Round ligament pain C. Breast tenderness D. Ankle edema Correct Answer: C. Breast tenderness Rationale: Breast enlargement and tenderness are common early pregnancy symptoms. 7. A client in the second trimester feels dizzy when lying flat. What is the likely cause? A. Hypoglycemia B. Supine hypotension C. Anemia D. Dehydration Correct Answer: B. Supine hypotension Rationale: The enlarged uterus compresses the vena cava when supine, decreasing venous return and causing hypotension. 8. A third trimester client reports shortness of breath but has normal vital signs. What is the best response? A. This is abnormal and needs emergency care B. It is common due to uterine pressure on the diaphragm C. You are likely developing pneumonia D. It indicates heart failure Correct Answer: B. It is common due to uterine pressure on the diaphragm Rationale: Dyspnea is common in the third trimester due to upward pressure on the diaphragm. 9. Which test screens for gestational diabetes? A. Rubella titer B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test C. VDRL D. CBC Correct Answer: B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test Rationale: The 1-hour GTT is done in the third trimester. If elevated, a 3-hour fasting GTT follows. 10. A first trimester client reports heavy bleeding and severe abdominal pain. What is the priority concern? A. Placenta previa B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Round ligament pain D. Hyperemesis Correct Answer: B. Ectopic pregnancy Rationale: Heavy bleeding and severe abdominal pain in early pregnancy may indicate ectopic pregnancy or miscarriage. 11. Which finding suggests placenta previa? A. Severe abdominal pain with rigid abdomen B. Painless bright red bleeding C. Board-like abdomen D. Dark vaginal discharge Correct Answer: B. Painless bright red bleeding Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. 12. A vaginal exam is contraindicated in a bleeding pregnant patient until which condition is ruled out? A. Preeclampsia B. Abruptio placentae C. Placenta previa D. Preterm labor Correct Answer: C. Placenta previa Rationale: A vaginal exam may cause severe hemorrhage if placenta previa is present. 13. A client has severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and dark vaginal bleeding. What is suspected? A. Placenta previa B. Abruptio placentae C. Preterm labor D. UTI Correct Answer: B. Abruptio placentae Rationale: Abruption presents with severe pain, rigid board-like abdomen, and heavy bleeding. 14. A BP of 162/102 with 3+ proteinuria indicates: A. Mild preeclampsia B. Severe preeclampsia C. Chronic hypertension D. Gestational diabetes Correct Answer: B. Severe preeclampsia Rationale: Severe preeclampsia: BP ≥160/100 and protein ≥3+. 15. Which medication is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia? A. Oxytocin B. Magnesium sulfate C. Labetalol D. Terbutaline Correct Answer: B. Magnesium sulfate Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a CNS depressant used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia. 16. An incompetent cervix is best described as: A. Painful cervical dilation B. Painless cervical dilation without contractions C. Failure to dilate in labor D. Cervical infection Correct Answer: B. Painless cervical dilation without contractions Rationale: Incompetent cervix causes passive dilation in late 2nd or early 3rd trimester. 17. When is a cerclage typically placed? A. 6–8 weeks B. 11–15 weeks C. 20–24 weeks D. 30–32 weeks Correct Answer: B. 11–15 weeks Rationale: Cerclage is placed early in pregnancy and removed at 37 weeks. 18. Which complication is associated with anemia in pregnancy? A. Decreased infection risk B. Postpartum hemorrhage C. Reduced preterm labor D. Improved fetal growth Correct Answer: B. Postpartum hemorrhage Rationale: Anemia increases risk of miscarriage, preterm labor, preeclampsia, infection, PPH, and IUGR. 19. Which symptom requires immediate reporting in second or third trimester? A. Heartburn B. Leg cramps C. Sudden gush of fluid D. Mild fatigue Correct Answer: C. Sudden gush of fluid Rationale: Sudden fluid discharge may indicate rupture of membranes. 20. A patient receiving magnesium sulfate requires: A. Continuous ambulation B. Bed rest and close monitoring C. Discontinuation after delivery D. High-sodium diet Correct Answer: B. Bed rest and close monitoring Rationale: Magnesium sulfate requires close monitoring during loading and maintenance doses and continues until 24 hours postpartum.