JBL EMT Midterm Practice Exam
2025/2026: 100 Questions & Answers with
Explanations
Overview
The EMT Mid-Term evaluates your transition from basic knowledge to
clinical application. It tests your ability to prioritize life threats using
the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) model and requires a
deep understanding of the National EMS Scope of Practice. You are
expected to know not just "what" to do, but the "why" behind every
intervention.
Key Features of the Exam
Critical Thinking: Questions often present a "best" or "most
appropriate" next step among several correct-looking options.
NREMT Style: Many questions follow the scenario-based format used
in the national registry.
High-Yield Topics: Expect heavy emphasis on BVM ventilation
rates, Shock (Hypoperfusion), and Medical Legal/Ethics.
Passing Standard: Most JBL-based programs require a 75% to
80% to demonstrate competency before moving to trauma and clinical
rotations.
1. You arrive at a scene where a patient is prone. To begin your
assessment, you must move them to a supine position. This
should be done using a:
A) Fireman’s carry.
B) Log roll.
C) Extremity lift.
D) Rapid extrication.
Explanation: The log roll is the safest way to move a patient from
prone to supine while maintaining spinal alignment.
,2. Which of the following is considered a definitive sign of death
where resuscitation should not be attempted?
A) Absence of a pulse.
B) Cyanosis.
C) Dependent lividity.
D) Agonal gasps.
Explanation: Dependent lividity (blood settling to the lowest point of
the body) is a definitive sign of death, unlike clinical death (no pulse),
which may be reversible.
3. The "Standard of Care" is best defined as:
A) The laws passed by the state legislature.
B) What a reasonable, similarly trained EMT would do in the same
situation.
C) The verbal orders given by a Medical Director.
D) The ethical desire to do good for the patient.
Explanation: Standard of Care is the benchmark used to evaluate an
EMT's performance in legal and professional settings.
4. You are treating a 70-year-old male who is conscious and alert
but refuses transport despite signs of a heart attack. Your best
course of action is to:
A) Force the patient onto the stretcher.
B) Have the patient sign a refusal form and leave immediately.
C) Explain the risks of refusal, including death, and involve medical
direction.
D) Call the police to arrest the patient for being incompetent.
Explanation: Competent adults have the right to refuse care, but the
EMT must ensure the patient is fully informed of the life-threatening
consequences.
5. Which organ is located in the Upper Right Quadrant (RUQ) of
the abdomen?
A) Spleen.
B) Appendix.
C) Liver.
D) Urinary Bladder.
, Explanation: The liver is the primary organ in the RUQ; the spleen is in
the LUQ, and the appendix is in the RLQ.
6. The process by which oxygen and carbon dioxide are
exchanged in the lungs is called:
A) Ventilation.
B) Respiration.
C) Oxygenation.
D) Inhalation.
Explanation: Respiration is the actual gas exchange at the
cellular/alveolar level, whereas ventilation is the physical act of moving
air.
7. A 5-year-old child is choking. He is coughing forcefully. You
should:
A) Perform 5 back blows.
B) Perform abdominal thrusts.
C) Encourage him to cough and monitor closely.
D) Perform a blind finger sweep.
Explanation: If the patient is coughing forcefully, the airway is only
partially obstructed; interfering could turn it into a complete
obstruction.
8. What is the normal heart rate range for an adult at rest?
A) 40–60 bpm.
B) 60–100 bpm.
C) 100–120 bpm.
D) 120–150 bpm.
Explanation: 60–100 beats per minute is the standard "normal" range
for an adult; rates above 100 are tachycardic.
9. When using a Bag-Valve Mask (BVM) on an adult with a pulse,
you should ventilate at a rate of:
A) 1 breath every 2–3 seconds.
B) 1 breath every 5–6 seconds.
C) 1 breath every 10–12 seconds.
D) As fast as you can squeeze the bag.
Explanation: One breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) provides
adequate oxygenation without causing gastric distention or reducing
cardiac output.
2025/2026: 100 Questions & Answers with
Explanations
Overview
The EMT Mid-Term evaluates your transition from basic knowledge to
clinical application. It tests your ability to prioritize life threats using
the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) model and requires a
deep understanding of the National EMS Scope of Practice. You are
expected to know not just "what" to do, but the "why" behind every
intervention.
Key Features of the Exam
Critical Thinking: Questions often present a "best" or "most
appropriate" next step among several correct-looking options.
NREMT Style: Many questions follow the scenario-based format used
in the national registry.
High-Yield Topics: Expect heavy emphasis on BVM ventilation
rates, Shock (Hypoperfusion), and Medical Legal/Ethics.
Passing Standard: Most JBL-based programs require a 75% to
80% to demonstrate competency before moving to trauma and clinical
rotations.
1. You arrive at a scene where a patient is prone. To begin your
assessment, you must move them to a supine position. This
should be done using a:
A) Fireman’s carry.
B) Log roll.
C) Extremity lift.
D) Rapid extrication.
Explanation: The log roll is the safest way to move a patient from
prone to supine while maintaining spinal alignment.
,2. Which of the following is considered a definitive sign of death
where resuscitation should not be attempted?
A) Absence of a pulse.
B) Cyanosis.
C) Dependent lividity.
D) Agonal gasps.
Explanation: Dependent lividity (blood settling to the lowest point of
the body) is a definitive sign of death, unlike clinical death (no pulse),
which may be reversible.
3. The "Standard of Care" is best defined as:
A) The laws passed by the state legislature.
B) What a reasonable, similarly trained EMT would do in the same
situation.
C) The verbal orders given by a Medical Director.
D) The ethical desire to do good for the patient.
Explanation: Standard of Care is the benchmark used to evaluate an
EMT's performance in legal and professional settings.
4. You are treating a 70-year-old male who is conscious and alert
but refuses transport despite signs of a heart attack. Your best
course of action is to:
A) Force the patient onto the stretcher.
B) Have the patient sign a refusal form and leave immediately.
C) Explain the risks of refusal, including death, and involve medical
direction.
D) Call the police to arrest the patient for being incompetent.
Explanation: Competent adults have the right to refuse care, but the
EMT must ensure the patient is fully informed of the life-threatening
consequences.
5. Which organ is located in the Upper Right Quadrant (RUQ) of
the abdomen?
A) Spleen.
B) Appendix.
C) Liver.
D) Urinary Bladder.
, Explanation: The liver is the primary organ in the RUQ; the spleen is in
the LUQ, and the appendix is in the RLQ.
6. The process by which oxygen and carbon dioxide are
exchanged in the lungs is called:
A) Ventilation.
B) Respiration.
C) Oxygenation.
D) Inhalation.
Explanation: Respiration is the actual gas exchange at the
cellular/alveolar level, whereas ventilation is the physical act of moving
air.
7. A 5-year-old child is choking. He is coughing forcefully. You
should:
A) Perform 5 back blows.
B) Perform abdominal thrusts.
C) Encourage him to cough and monitor closely.
D) Perform a blind finger sweep.
Explanation: If the patient is coughing forcefully, the airway is only
partially obstructed; interfering could turn it into a complete
obstruction.
8. What is the normal heart rate range for an adult at rest?
A) 40–60 bpm.
B) 60–100 bpm.
C) 100–120 bpm.
D) 120–150 bpm.
Explanation: 60–100 beats per minute is the standard "normal" range
for an adult; rates above 100 are tachycardic.
9. When using a Bag-Valve Mask (BVM) on an adult with a pulse,
you should ventilate at a rate of:
A) 1 breath every 2–3 seconds.
B) 1 breath every 5–6 seconds.
C) 1 breath every 10–12 seconds.
D) As fast as you can squeeze the bag.
Explanation: One breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) provides
adequate oxygenation without causing gastric distention or reducing
cardiac output.
