OB FINAL REVIEW SCRIPT 2026 TESTED
ANSWERS GRADED A+
● A client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What
intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Ask the client if she takes a daily calcium tablet.
B) Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot.
C) Lower the leg off the side of the bed.
D) Elevate the leg above the heart.. Answer: B) Extend the leg and
dorsiflex the foot.
Rationale:
Dorsiflexing the foot by pushing the sole of the foot forward or by
standing (if the client is capable) (B), and putting the heel of the foot on
the floor is the best means of relieving leg cramps. (A) is not related to
leg cramps caused by reduced circulation to the foot. (C) is not likely to
be helpful. (D) is used to promote venous return, but is not indicated for
leg cramps.
● A primigravida at 40-weeks gestation is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to
augment labor. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during
the infusion of Pitocin?
A) Dehydration.
B) Hyperstimulation.
C) Galactorrhea.
,D) Fetal tachycardia.. Answer: B) Hyperstimulation.
Rationale:
Pitocin causes the uterine myofibril to contract, so unless the infusion is
closely monitored, the client is at risk for hyperstimulation (B) which
can lead to tetanic contractions, uterine rupture, and fetal distress or
demise. Dehydration (A) and galactorrhea (C) are not adverse effects
associated with the administration of Pitocin. Fetal tachycardia (D) is an
initial response to any stressor, including an increase in maternal
temperature or intrauterine infection, but fetal decelerations indicate
distress following tetanic contractions.
● A client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. Which
finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare
provider immediately?
A) Heart rate of 100 beats/minute.
B) Variable fetal heart rate.
C) Onset of uterine contractions.
D) Burning on urination.. Answer: C) Onset of uterine contractions.
Rationale:
Total (complete) placenta previa involves the placenta covering the
entire cervical os (opening). The onset of uterine contractions (C) places
the client at risk for dilation and placental separation, which causes
painless hemorrhaging. Although (A, B, and D) should be reported, the
risk of hemorrhage is the priority.
, ● A multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and
delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is
experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic test should the
nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status?
A) Biophysical profile (BPP).
B) Ultrasound for fetal anomalies.
C) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AF) screening.
D) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS).. Answer: A)
Biophysical profile (BPP).
Rationale:
BPP (A) provides data regarding fetal risk surveillance by examining 5
areas: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, amniotic fluid
volume, and fetal tone and heart rate. The client's gestation has
progressed past the estimated date of confinement, so the major concern
is fetal well-being related to an aging placenta, not screening for fetal
anomalies (B). Maternal serum AF screening is generally checked
between 15 and 22 weeks to detect neural tube defects (C). Although
PUBS is performed to determine a number of at-risk fetal conditions, the
BPP determines current fetal risk (D).
● Which action should the nurse implement when preparing to measure
the fundal height of a pregnant client?
A) Have the client empty her bladder.
B) Request the client lie on her left side.
C) Perform Leopold's maneuvers first.
ANSWERS GRADED A+
● A client in active labor complains of cramps in her leg. What
intervention should the nurse implement?
A) Ask the client if she takes a daily calcium tablet.
B) Extend the leg and dorsiflex the foot.
C) Lower the leg off the side of the bed.
D) Elevate the leg above the heart.. Answer: B) Extend the leg and
dorsiflex the foot.
Rationale:
Dorsiflexing the foot by pushing the sole of the foot forward or by
standing (if the client is capable) (B), and putting the heel of the foot on
the floor is the best means of relieving leg cramps. (A) is not related to
leg cramps caused by reduced circulation to the foot. (C) is not likely to
be helpful. (D) is used to promote venous return, but is not indicated for
leg cramps.
● A primigravida at 40-weeks gestation is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to
augment labor. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during
the infusion of Pitocin?
A) Dehydration.
B) Hyperstimulation.
C) Galactorrhea.
,D) Fetal tachycardia.. Answer: B) Hyperstimulation.
Rationale:
Pitocin causes the uterine myofibril to contract, so unless the infusion is
closely monitored, the client is at risk for hyperstimulation (B) which
can lead to tetanic contractions, uterine rupture, and fetal distress or
demise. Dehydration (A) and galactorrhea (C) are not adverse effects
associated with the administration of Pitocin. Fetal tachycardia (D) is an
initial response to any stressor, including an increase in maternal
temperature or intrauterine infection, but fetal decelerations indicate
distress following tetanic contractions.
● A client is admitted with the diagnosis of total placenta previa. Which
finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare
provider immediately?
A) Heart rate of 100 beats/minute.
B) Variable fetal heart rate.
C) Onset of uterine contractions.
D) Burning on urination.. Answer: C) Onset of uterine contractions.
Rationale:
Total (complete) placenta previa involves the placenta covering the
entire cervical os (opening). The onset of uterine contractions (C) places
the client at risk for dilation and placental separation, which causes
painless hemorrhaging. Although (A, B, and D) should be reported, the
risk of hemorrhage is the priority.
, ● A multigravida client at 41-weeks gestation presents in the labor and
delivery unit after a non-stress test indicated that the fetus is
experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic test should the
nurse prepare the client for additional information about fetal status?
A) Biophysical profile (BPP).
B) Ultrasound for fetal anomalies.
C) Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AF) screening.
D) Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS).. Answer: A)
Biophysical profile (BPP).
Rationale:
BPP (A) provides data regarding fetal risk surveillance by examining 5
areas: fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, amniotic fluid
volume, and fetal tone and heart rate. The client's gestation has
progressed past the estimated date of confinement, so the major concern
is fetal well-being related to an aging placenta, not screening for fetal
anomalies (B). Maternal serum AF screening is generally checked
between 15 and 22 weeks to detect neural tube defects (C). Although
PUBS is performed to determine a number of at-risk fetal conditions, the
BPP determines current fetal risk (D).
● Which action should the nurse implement when preparing to measure
the fundal height of a pregnant client?
A) Have the client empty her bladder.
B) Request the client lie on her left side.
C) Perform Leopold's maneuvers first.
