Kalitta Air 747-400 CBT 2020 exam with correct answers
100% verified.
1) To enter a waypoint defined as N05 12.60 and East 005 12.50 in to the CDU, the entry should be?
N0512.6E00512.5 with no spaces.
2) Which of the following will render the engine 1 reverser inoperative?
Bleed 1 overheat condition, and engine 1 PRV valve remains closed.
3) A VALVE light displayed in crossfeed switch 1 or 4 indicates?
Crossfeed valve not in the position commanded by the switch.
4) When are the flap maneuvering speeds displayed on the PFD?
Below 20,000 feet.
5) Which of the following conditions will cause the SSB (Split System Breaker) to open?
APU GEN 1 and 2 ON lights illuminated.
6) Electrical bus isolation, occurring during autoland, involves the following configuration:
AC busses 1, 2, 3, are isolated with AC bus 4 powering the Sync bus.
7) When can the aircraft bank angle be limited to 10 degrees using the Bank Limit Selector?
Only when HDG SEL roll mode is active.
8) With the ND in MAP mode, which of the following will always be displayed?
Active route and airplane position.
9) The Autopilot DISENGAGE Bar when pressed down will do what?
Disengages the autopilots and prevents reengagement.
10) On the B747-400ERF, the Center Air Data selector switch when selected to the ON L position, results
in?
The Center Air Data Inertial Reference Units information, being used instead of the Left Air Data Inertial
Reference Units information.
11) The AUX pump on hydraulic system 4 is driven how?
Electrically via the ground handling bus.
12) Which of the following will NOT trigger the landing configuration warning siren and an EICAS CONFIG
GEAR warning message in flight with any gear not down and locked?
Landing runway not selected in the CDU.
1
,13) To enter a waypoint defined as 48 North, 48 West into the CDU, should be entered as?
N48W048 with no spaces.
14) While operating in the North Atlantic MNPS airspace, you notice that you will arrive at your next
waypoint 3 minutes earlier than you reported previously as your estimate. You should?
Notify ATC and provide your updated ETA as soon as practical. The 10 minute report prior restriction has
been omitted.
15) While flying with the autopilot engaged, the EICAS caution message STAB TRIM UNSCHED indicates?
Uncommanded stabilizer motion detected and automatic cutout does not occur, or Alternate Stabilizer
Trim switches in use.
16) An altitude or speed constraint along the route of flight can be verified by checking if they are
present where?
On the LEGS page in large font.
17) What is the maximum operating altitude of the Boeing 747-400 series?
45,100 feet.
18) In the Flaps Alternate mode, the flaps have a limitation of?
Flaps can only be extended to 25 degrees maximum.
19) Which of the following is NOT an AFDS roll mode?
Flare
20) Does the EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING indicate that the APU generators are powering the
Sync bus?
No, they have to be manually selected.
21) The DME receivers can be tuned automatically and or manually how?
Via the CDU NAV/RAD page.
22) What is the wind limit to open or close the main deck cargo door?
40 knots?
23) With the APU Bleed Air switch ON, how do you know when the APU bleed air valve is open?
When the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING appears.
24) An APU fire on the ground is indicated outside the aircraft by?
A red light and intermittent horn in the right body gear wheel well.
25) ICAS Caution messages are removed by?
2
, B) Pressing the EICAS CANC switch and C) correcting the condition that caused the message.
26) With respect to hydraulic system operation and all switches in the normal positions, placing the
engine fuel control switch to cutoff will?
Command the associated Hydraulic Demand Pump On.
27) Trailing edge flap asymmetry is provided in what modes?
Primary and secondary modes.
28) In icing conditions on the ground, what are the engine run-up requirements?
60% N1 for 30 seconds every 30 minutes and before starting the takeoff roll.
29) During an Autoland approach at what approximate radio altitude does the Autopilot start the
runway alignment phase?
500 feet.
30) The current position can be entered to update the IRS when?
On the ground with the aircraft parked.
31) What happens if both tiller and rudder pedals are operated simultaneously?
Both tiller inputs override rudder inputs.
32) While accomplishing the TERMINATING Checklist, when should the Battery Switch be selected to
OFF?
At least 2 minutes after the APU shuts down for fire protection.
33) Which fuel tanks have both Main and Override pumps?
Main tanks 2 & 3.
34) With a failure of both FMC's ILS receivers must be tuned how?
Each receiver manually from the associated CDU NAVRAD page.
35) When you turn the flight director (F/D) switch ON inflight with the wings level (assuming both FDs
and all autopilots were off) the active pitch mode will be?
Vertical Speed V/S.
36) Fuel from the Reserve fuel tanks can be transferred to which tanks?
The inboard main tanks.
37) What is the unlimited engine start EGT limit?
750 degrees C.
3
100% verified.
1) To enter a waypoint defined as N05 12.60 and East 005 12.50 in to the CDU, the entry should be?
N0512.6E00512.5 with no spaces.
2) Which of the following will render the engine 1 reverser inoperative?
Bleed 1 overheat condition, and engine 1 PRV valve remains closed.
3) A VALVE light displayed in crossfeed switch 1 or 4 indicates?
Crossfeed valve not in the position commanded by the switch.
4) When are the flap maneuvering speeds displayed on the PFD?
Below 20,000 feet.
5) Which of the following conditions will cause the SSB (Split System Breaker) to open?
APU GEN 1 and 2 ON lights illuminated.
6) Electrical bus isolation, occurring during autoland, involves the following configuration:
AC busses 1, 2, 3, are isolated with AC bus 4 powering the Sync bus.
7) When can the aircraft bank angle be limited to 10 degrees using the Bank Limit Selector?
Only when HDG SEL roll mode is active.
8) With the ND in MAP mode, which of the following will always be displayed?
Active route and airplane position.
9) The Autopilot DISENGAGE Bar when pressed down will do what?
Disengages the autopilots and prevents reengagement.
10) On the B747-400ERF, the Center Air Data selector switch when selected to the ON L position, results
in?
The Center Air Data Inertial Reference Units information, being used instead of the Left Air Data Inertial
Reference Units information.
11) The AUX pump on hydraulic system 4 is driven how?
Electrically via the ground handling bus.
12) Which of the following will NOT trigger the landing configuration warning siren and an EICAS CONFIG
GEAR warning message in flight with any gear not down and locked?
Landing runway not selected in the CDU.
1
,13) To enter a waypoint defined as 48 North, 48 West into the CDU, should be entered as?
N48W048 with no spaces.
14) While operating in the North Atlantic MNPS airspace, you notice that you will arrive at your next
waypoint 3 minutes earlier than you reported previously as your estimate. You should?
Notify ATC and provide your updated ETA as soon as practical. The 10 minute report prior restriction has
been omitted.
15) While flying with the autopilot engaged, the EICAS caution message STAB TRIM UNSCHED indicates?
Uncommanded stabilizer motion detected and automatic cutout does not occur, or Alternate Stabilizer
Trim switches in use.
16) An altitude or speed constraint along the route of flight can be verified by checking if they are
present where?
On the LEGS page in large font.
17) What is the maximum operating altitude of the Boeing 747-400 series?
45,100 feet.
18) In the Flaps Alternate mode, the flaps have a limitation of?
Flaps can only be extended to 25 degrees maximum.
19) Which of the following is NOT an AFDS roll mode?
Flare
20) Does the EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING indicate that the APU generators are powering the
Sync bus?
No, they have to be manually selected.
21) The DME receivers can be tuned automatically and or manually how?
Via the CDU NAV/RAD page.
22) What is the wind limit to open or close the main deck cargo door?
40 knots?
23) With the APU Bleed Air switch ON, how do you know when the APU bleed air valve is open?
When the EICAS memo message APU RUNNING appears.
24) An APU fire on the ground is indicated outside the aircraft by?
A red light and intermittent horn in the right body gear wheel well.
25) ICAS Caution messages are removed by?
2
, B) Pressing the EICAS CANC switch and C) correcting the condition that caused the message.
26) With respect to hydraulic system operation and all switches in the normal positions, placing the
engine fuel control switch to cutoff will?
Command the associated Hydraulic Demand Pump On.
27) Trailing edge flap asymmetry is provided in what modes?
Primary and secondary modes.
28) In icing conditions on the ground, what are the engine run-up requirements?
60% N1 for 30 seconds every 30 minutes and before starting the takeoff roll.
29) During an Autoland approach at what approximate radio altitude does the Autopilot start the
runway alignment phase?
500 feet.
30) The current position can be entered to update the IRS when?
On the ground with the aircraft parked.
31) What happens if both tiller and rudder pedals are operated simultaneously?
Both tiller inputs override rudder inputs.
32) While accomplishing the TERMINATING Checklist, when should the Battery Switch be selected to
OFF?
At least 2 minutes after the APU shuts down for fire protection.
33) Which fuel tanks have both Main and Override pumps?
Main tanks 2 & 3.
34) With a failure of both FMC's ILS receivers must be tuned how?
Each receiver manually from the associated CDU NAVRAD page.
35) When you turn the flight director (F/D) switch ON inflight with the wings level (assuming both FDs
and all autopilots were off) the active pitch mode will be?
Vertical Speed V/S.
36) Fuel from the Reserve fuel tanks can be transferred to which tanks?
The inboard main tanks.
37) What is the unlimited engine start EGT limit?
750 degrees C.
3
