CEA Prep – Certified Emergency
Assessment Prep Full Practice Exam and
Answer with Rationales
Introduction:
This document contains a full-length practice exam for CEA
preparation, including multiple-choice clinical questions with
detailed answers and rationales. The material covers a wide
range of medical topics such as hematology, infectious
diseases, dermatology, neurology, cardiology, endocrinology,
pediatrics, and emergency medicine scenarios. It is designed to
help healthcare students and professionals review key clinical
concepts and improve exam readiness. The explanations
reinforce diagnostic reasoning and evidence-based
management strategies.
Exam Questions and Answers with Rationales:
A Caucasian male patient with fair skin and green eyes is at a
particularly high risk for which of the following serious skin
conditions? ---Correct precise answer---Skin cancer
Rationale:Although wrinkles, sunburn, and keratoacanthoma
are skin conditions, none of them are serious nor predisposed
,from this patient's profile. Skin cancer risk is very high for
this patient.
During the preadmission history and physical, you examine
your patient and find a new multicolored mole measuring 9mm
with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis? ---
Correct precise answer---Melanoma
Rationale:These are all classic findings for melanoma:
irregular borders, diameter over 6mm, multicolor, and new or
rapidly evolved.
A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy
presents with nausea and vomiting. What is the most
appropriate initial management?
*Prescribe ondansetron
*Recommend small, frequent meals
*Prescribe metoclopramide
*Advise bed rest ---Correct precise answer---Prescribe
ondansetron
Rationale:Zofran (Ondansetron) is a medication commonly
used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking the
action of serotonin, a natural substance that may cause nausea
and vomiting
,A 46-year-old female presents with a complaint of amenorrhea
for 3 months. The first-line diagnostic workup is:
*progesterone challenge.
*thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
*serum prolactin level.
*urine pregnancy test. ---Correct precise answer---urine
pregnancy test.
Rationale:Although less common, women in their mid-40s can
still become pregnant, especially if they are perimenopausal
and have not yet reached menopause. Pregnancy should be
considered as a potential cause of amenorrhea.
A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3
years plans to discontinue the pill at the end of her current
cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily
supplements would receive the highest priority?
*Ferrous sulfate
*Folic acid
*Multivitamin
*Calcium carbonate ---Correct precise answer---Folic acid
, Rationale:Folic acid, a B-vitamin (B9), plays a crucial role in
ensuring a healthy pregnancy and reducing the risk of birth
defects. Folic acid is crucial in the early development of the
neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord. Adequate
folic acid intake can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube
defects such as spina bifida (incomplete closure of the spinal
cord) and anencephaly (underdevelopment of the brain). The
neural tube forms very early in pregnancy, often before a
woman knows she is pregnant. Therefore, it is essential to
have adequate folic acid levels before and during early
pregnancy.
Your patient presents with darkened, velvety creases of the
groin, neck, and axilla with skin tags present. What does this
possibly indicate? ---Correct precise answer---Evidence of
insulin resistance
Rationale:Acanthosis nigricans is described as the presence of
darkened, velvety creases of the groin, neck, and axilla with
skin tags present. This is suggestive of increased insulin
resistance and metabolic syndrome.
An adult male presents complaining of a left ankle injury that
occurred 2 days ago while he was playing basketball. The
patient cannot bear weight and ROM is limited by pain. What
acute injuries would be included in the differential diagnosis
Assessment Prep Full Practice Exam and
Answer with Rationales
Introduction:
This document contains a full-length practice exam for CEA
preparation, including multiple-choice clinical questions with
detailed answers and rationales. The material covers a wide
range of medical topics such as hematology, infectious
diseases, dermatology, neurology, cardiology, endocrinology,
pediatrics, and emergency medicine scenarios. It is designed to
help healthcare students and professionals review key clinical
concepts and improve exam readiness. The explanations
reinforce diagnostic reasoning and evidence-based
management strategies.
Exam Questions and Answers with Rationales:
A Caucasian male patient with fair skin and green eyes is at a
particularly high risk for which of the following serious skin
conditions? ---Correct precise answer---Skin cancer
Rationale:Although wrinkles, sunburn, and keratoacanthoma
are skin conditions, none of them are serious nor predisposed
,from this patient's profile. Skin cancer risk is very high for
this patient.
During the preadmission history and physical, you examine
your patient and find a new multicolored mole measuring 9mm
with irregular borders. What is the most likely diagnosis? ---
Correct precise answer---Melanoma
Rationale:These are all classic findings for melanoma:
irregular borders, diameter over 6mm, multicolor, and new or
rapidly evolved.
A 28-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy
presents with nausea and vomiting. What is the most
appropriate initial management?
*Prescribe ondansetron
*Recommend small, frequent meals
*Prescribe metoclopramide
*Advise bed rest ---Correct precise answer---Prescribe
ondansetron
Rationale:Zofran (Ondansetron) is a medication commonly
used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking the
action of serotonin, a natural substance that may cause nausea
and vomiting
,A 46-year-old female presents with a complaint of amenorrhea
for 3 months. The first-line diagnostic workup is:
*progesterone challenge.
*thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
*serum prolactin level.
*urine pregnancy test. ---Correct precise answer---urine
pregnancy test.
Rationale:Although less common, women in their mid-40s can
still become pregnant, especially if they are perimenopausal
and have not yet reached menopause. Pregnancy should be
considered as a potential cause of amenorrhea.
A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3
years plans to discontinue the pill at the end of her current
cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily
supplements would receive the highest priority?
*Ferrous sulfate
*Folic acid
*Multivitamin
*Calcium carbonate ---Correct precise answer---Folic acid
, Rationale:Folic acid, a B-vitamin (B9), plays a crucial role in
ensuring a healthy pregnancy and reducing the risk of birth
defects. Folic acid is crucial in the early development of the
neural tube, which forms the brain and spinal cord. Adequate
folic acid intake can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube
defects such as spina bifida (incomplete closure of the spinal
cord) and anencephaly (underdevelopment of the brain). The
neural tube forms very early in pregnancy, often before a
woman knows she is pregnant. Therefore, it is essential to
have adequate folic acid levels before and during early
pregnancy.
Your patient presents with darkened, velvety creases of the
groin, neck, and axilla with skin tags present. What does this
possibly indicate? ---Correct precise answer---Evidence of
insulin resistance
Rationale:Acanthosis nigricans is described as the presence of
darkened, velvety creases of the groin, neck, and axilla with
skin tags present. This is suggestive of increased insulin
resistance and metabolic syndrome.
An adult male presents complaining of a left ankle injury that
occurred 2 days ago while he was playing basketball. The
patient cannot bear weight and ROM is limited by pain. What
acute injuries would be included in the differential diagnosis
