FNP Board Latest Questions and Correct
Answers / ANCC FNP Board Exam Prep
2026 with a Review of 300 Recently Tested
Questions and Correct Answers
An otherwise healthy adult patient presents to the clinic with a diagnosis of
community-acquired pneumonia and no recent antibiotic therapy. Which is
the best option for treatment? ..........ANSWER.......Amoxicillin
High-dose amoxicillin (Amoxil) or doxycycline are recommended as first-
line therapy for adults without comorbidities.
_____________________________________________
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is pneumonia not acquired in a
hospital or long-term care facility. Patients with suspected CAP should
receive a chest X-ray for diagnosis. The Pneumonia Severity Index should be
used to assist in decisions regarding the need for hospitalization in patients
with CAP.
According to the American Thoracic Society (ATS) and the Infectious
Diseases Society of America (IDSA) 2019 guidelines, the initial treatment of
CAP for most patients is amoxicillin or doxycycline. Macrolides are an option
for treatment, but are no longer recommended routinely as first-line
treatment, given increased macrolide resistance. This is a change from the
2007 ATS/IDSA guidelines. Respiratory fluoroquinolones and
amoxicillin/clavulanate should be used in patients who fail first-line
medications, have significant comorbidities, have had recent antibiotic
therapy, are allergic to alternative agents, or have a documented infection
with highly drug-resistant pneumococci.
,A patient presents to the clinic for conception counseling. She recently
stopped taking oral contraceptives and would like to become pregnant.
Which statement about conception safety after stopping oral contraceptives
is correct? ..........ANSWER.......
You have a 35-year-old female patient who is complaining of wrist pain. She
is an administrative assistant who does a great deal of computer work in her
job. You will test her for carpal tunnel syndrome. When you tap at the volar
surface of the wrist you are performing which of the following tests?
..........ANSWER.......Tinel's sign
A gastrinoma located on the pancreas or the stomach which secretes gastrin,
stimulating high levels of acid production in the stomach is which of the
following? ..........ANSWER.......Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
A 16-year-old male is in the office. He has a insect bite on his left forearm
and you suspect a brown recluse spider bite. What medical management
would you provide? ..........ANSWER.......ice pack and elevation of the area
In addition to being overweight, the American Diabetes Association
recommends type 2 diabetes mellitus testing in adults who:
..........ANSWER.......have an HDL level of < 35 mg/dL
Which of the following found on an ECG would confirm atrial fibrillation?
..........ANSWER.......-absent P waves
-irregular ventricular rate
,As an FNP you understand that all of the following statements about chronic
heart failure are accurate EXCEPT: ..........ANSWER.......-The preponderance
is in females until the age of 75, then there is equal occurrence in males and
females.
-Patients who are underweight have a greater risk of CHF.
The FNP has a 45-year-old male patient with BPH who has poison ivy. The
FNP plans to prescribe Benadryl for this. What is a possible adverse effect
with the use of Benadryl for this patient? ..........ANSWER.......urinary
retention
You are testing a client suspected of having Parkinson's disease. You support
the client's elbow with his forearm extended in your hand and grasp his
wrist, flexing the forearm. You find rigid resistance to this motion. This is
considered which of the following? ..........ANSWER.......cogwheeling
The complex network of nerve fibers that innervate the organs within the
abdomen like the gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, and gall bladder is the
..........ANSWER.......enteric nervous system
Aplastic anemia would be classified as which of the following?
..........ANSWER.......normocytic anemia
Charles Darwin wrote On the Origin of Species about human evolution. He
also is known for which of the following? ..........ANSWER.......developing the
"baby journal" as a systematic method to document observed behavioral
development
, A middle-age female patient presents to the clinic with a recurrence of mild
hidradenitis suppurativa after topical therapies failed. Which first-line
treatment is recommended? ..........ANSWER.......Tetracycline
Twelve weeks of oral tetracycline (Sumycin) is the recommended first-line
treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa.
__________________________________________________
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disorder of the terminal follicular epithelium in
apocrine gland-bearing skin. It is a chronic, disabling disorder that
progresses, often causing keloids, contractures, and immobility. It is
characterized by comedone-like follicular occlusion, chronic and relapsing
inflammation, mucopurulent discharge, and progressive scarring.
Arthropathy associated with hidradenitis may be present. Typical
presentation includes nodules and sinus tracts (inflamed or noninflamed),
abscesses, and scarring found in the axilla, genitofemoral area, perineum,
gluteal area, and inframammary area in women.
Recommended treatments include antibiotics, steroids, retinoids, dapsone,
and anti-tumor necrosis factor agents. A dermatology consultation should
also be considered.
First-line treatment is a 12-week course of an oral tetracycline (Sumycin)
such as doxycycline. For patients who do not respond to doxycycline, the
next recommended step is a combination of twice-daily clindamycin
(Cleocin) and rifampicin (Rifadin) for 10-12 weeks. If treatment fails, acitretin
(Soriatane, for males and nonfertile females) or dapsone (Aczone) may be
considered by a dermatologist. In patients with moderate to severe
hidradenitis suppurativa, adalimumab (Humira) may possibly be considered.
When providing culturally competent health care services to an American
Indian elder, the nurse practitioner understands which is traditionally true?
Answers / ANCC FNP Board Exam Prep
2026 with a Review of 300 Recently Tested
Questions and Correct Answers
An otherwise healthy adult patient presents to the clinic with a diagnosis of
community-acquired pneumonia and no recent antibiotic therapy. Which is
the best option for treatment? ..........ANSWER.......Amoxicillin
High-dose amoxicillin (Amoxil) or doxycycline are recommended as first-
line therapy for adults without comorbidities.
_____________________________________________
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is pneumonia not acquired in a
hospital or long-term care facility. Patients with suspected CAP should
receive a chest X-ray for diagnosis. The Pneumonia Severity Index should be
used to assist in decisions regarding the need for hospitalization in patients
with CAP.
According to the American Thoracic Society (ATS) and the Infectious
Diseases Society of America (IDSA) 2019 guidelines, the initial treatment of
CAP for most patients is amoxicillin or doxycycline. Macrolides are an option
for treatment, but are no longer recommended routinely as first-line
treatment, given increased macrolide resistance. This is a change from the
2007 ATS/IDSA guidelines. Respiratory fluoroquinolones and
amoxicillin/clavulanate should be used in patients who fail first-line
medications, have significant comorbidities, have had recent antibiotic
therapy, are allergic to alternative agents, or have a documented infection
with highly drug-resistant pneumococci.
,A patient presents to the clinic for conception counseling. She recently
stopped taking oral contraceptives and would like to become pregnant.
Which statement about conception safety after stopping oral contraceptives
is correct? ..........ANSWER.......
You have a 35-year-old female patient who is complaining of wrist pain. She
is an administrative assistant who does a great deal of computer work in her
job. You will test her for carpal tunnel syndrome. When you tap at the volar
surface of the wrist you are performing which of the following tests?
..........ANSWER.......Tinel's sign
A gastrinoma located on the pancreas or the stomach which secretes gastrin,
stimulating high levels of acid production in the stomach is which of the
following? ..........ANSWER.......Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
A 16-year-old male is in the office. He has a insect bite on his left forearm
and you suspect a brown recluse spider bite. What medical management
would you provide? ..........ANSWER.......ice pack and elevation of the area
In addition to being overweight, the American Diabetes Association
recommends type 2 diabetes mellitus testing in adults who:
..........ANSWER.......have an HDL level of < 35 mg/dL
Which of the following found on an ECG would confirm atrial fibrillation?
..........ANSWER.......-absent P waves
-irregular ventricular rate
,As an FNP you understand that all of the following statements about chronic
heart failure are accurate EXCEPT: ..........ANSWER.......-The preponderance
is in females until the age of 75, then there is equal occurrence in males and
females.
-Patients who are underweight have a greater risk of CHF.
The FNP has a 45-year-old male patient with BPH who has poison ivy. The
FNP plans to prescribe Benadryl for this. What is a possible adverse effect
with the use of Benadryl for this patient? ..........ANSWER.......urinary
retention
You are testing a client suspected of having Parkinson's disease. You support
the client's elbow with his forearm extended in your hand and grasp his
wrist, flexing the forearm. You find rigid resistance to this motion. This is
considered which of the following? ..........ANSWER.......cogwheeling
The complex network of nerve fibers that innervate the organs within the
abdomen like the gastrointestinal tract, pancreas, and gall bladder is the
..........ANSWER.......enteric nervous system
Aplastic anemia would be classified as which of the following?
..........ANSWER.......normocytic anemia
Charles Darwin wrote On the Origin of Species about human evolution. He
also is known for which of the following? ..........ANSWER.......developing the
"baby journal" as a systematic method to document observed behavioral
development
, A middle-age female patient presents to the clinic with a recurrence of mild
hidradenitis suppurativa after topical therapies failed. Which first-line
treatment is recommended? ..........ANSWER.......Tetracycline
Twelve weeks of oral tetracycline (Sumycin) is the recommended first-line
treatment for hidradenitis suppurativa.
__________________________________________________
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a disorder of the terminal follicular epithelium in
apocrine gland-bearing skin. It is a chronic, disabling disorder that
progresses, often causing keloids, contractures, and immobility. It is
characterized by comedone-like follicular occlusion, chronic and relapsing
inflammation, mucopurulent discharge, and progressive scarring.
Arthropathy associated with hidradenitis may be present. Typical
presentation includes nodules and sinus tracts (inflamed or noninflamed),
abscesses, and scarring found in the axilla, genitofemoral area, perineum,
gluteal area, and inframammary area in women.
Recommended treatments include antibiotics, steroids, retinoids, dapsone,
and anti-tumor necrosis factor agents. A dermatology consultation should
also be considered.
First-line treatment is a 12-week course of an oral tetracycline (Sumycin)
such as doxycycline. For patients who do not respond to doxycycline, the
next recommended step is a combination of twice-daily clindamycin
(Cleocin) and rifampicin (Rifadin) for 10-12 weeks. If treatment fails, acitretin
(Soriatane, for males and nonfertile females) or dapsone (Aczone) may be
considered by a dermatologist. In patients with moderate to severe
hidradenitis suppurativa, adalimumab (Humira) may possibly be considered.
When providing culturally competent health care services to an American
Indian elder, the nurse practitioner understands which is traditionally true?
