Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
Test Bank for Advantage for Understanding
Medical-Surgical Nursing Verified Questions And
Answers With Detailed Rationales Already Graded
A+ Guaranteed Pass – Ace your Exam
A patient is receiving captopril for heart failure. The nurse should notify the practitioner that the
medication therapy is ineffective if an assessment reveals:
A. a skin rash.
B. peripheral edema.
C. a dry cough.
D. postural hypotension
B. peripheral edema.
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 1
, Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume overload and worsening heart failure. The other options (a
skin rash, dry cough, and postural hypotension) are adverse reactions to captopril, but they don't
indicate that therapy isn't effective.
A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary artery disease. Which noninvasive
diagnostic
method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate cardiac changes?
A. Cardiac biopsy
B. Cardiac catheterization
C. MRI
D. Pericardiocentesis
C. MRI
Rationale:
MRI is a noninvasive procedure that aids in the diagnosis and detection of thoracic
aortic aneurysm and evaluation of coronary artery disease, pericardial disease, and cardiac masses.
Cardiac biopsy (Option A), cardiac catheterization (Option B), and pericardiocentesis (Option D) are
invasive
techniques used to evaluate cardiac changes.
When evaluating an ECG strip of a patient on a telemetry unit, the nurse notices the patient is having
premature
ventricular contractions (PVCs). What criterion on the ECG strip does the nurse use to evaluate the
presence
of PVCs?
A. An indiscernible PR interval
B. P waves that appear erratic
C. P waves that have a saw tooth configuration
D. A QRS complex followed by a compensatory pause
A+ TEST BANK 2
, Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
D. A QRS complex followed by a compensatory pause
Rationale:
In PVCs, the ECG shows a QRS complex followed by a compensatory pause that
ends when the underlying rhythm resumes. Options A and B are ECG criteria used to evaluate atrial
fibrillation. Option C is used to describe criteria for atrial flutter.
When locating Erb's point to hear aortic and pulmonic sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope
at the:
A. fifth intercostal space near the midclavicular line.
B. fith intercostal space along the left sternal border.
C. second intercostal space at the left sternal border.
D. third intercostal space at the left sternal border.
D. third intercostal space at the left sternal border.
Rationale:
Erb's point is located at the third intercostal space at the left sternal border. The
fi fth intercostal space near the midclavicular line (Option A) is used to listen to the mitral area. The
fifth intercostal space along the left sternal border (Option B) is the location for the tricuspid area. The
second intercostal space at the left sternal border (Option C) is the location for the pulmonic area.
When caring for a patient with arterial occlusive disease, which of the following home health care
instructions is most appropriate for the nurse to give to the patient?
A. "You should massage your legs to relieve pain."
B. "It's best to sit and rest for several hours a day."
C. "Make sure the head of your bed is slightly elevated when sleeping."
D. "It's best to wear tight socks instead of no socks."
A+ TEST BANK 3
, Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
C. "Make sure the head of your bed is slightly elevated when sleeping."
Rationale:
The patient should make sure the head of the bed is slightly elevated to aid perfusion
to the lower extremities. The patient shouldn't massage his legs
(Option A) because doing so could further damage tissue. Sitting for several hours a day (Option B)
isn't recommended. The patient should wear loose clothing, not constrictive clothing such as socks
with tight elastic (Option D), to avoid compressing the vessels in the legs.
The nurse prepares to administer an ACE inhibitor to a patient with an acute MI for which reason?
A. To minimize platelet aggregation
B. To reduce preload and afterload
C. To reduce myocardial oxygen consumption
D. To decrease myocardial oxygen demand
B. To reduce preload and afterload
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors reduce preload and afterload. Antiplatelet drugs minimize platelet
aggregation (Option A). Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption (Option C). Beta-adrenergic
blockers reduce the workload of the heart and myocardial oxygen demand (Option D).
Which of the following conditions can cause right-sided heart failure?
A. A ventricular septal defect
B. An anterior MI
C. An atrial septal defect
D. Constrictive pericarditis
C. An atrial septal defect
Rationale:
An atrial septal defect can lead to right-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure
can result from a ventricular septal defect (Option A), an anterior MI (Option B), or constrictive
pericarditis (Option D).
A+ TEST BANK 4
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
Test Bank for Advantage for Understanding
Medical-Surgical Nursing Verified Questions And
Answers With Detailed Rationales Already Graded
A+ Guaranteed Pass – Ace your Exam
A patient is receiving captopril for heart failure. The nurse should notify the practitioner that the
medication therapy is ineffective if an assessment reveals:
A. a skin rash.
B. peripheral edema.
C. a dry cough.
D. postural hypotension
B. peripheral edema.
Rationale:
A+ TEST BANK 1
, Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume overload and worsening heart failure. The other options (a
skin rash, dry cough, and postural hypotension) are adverse reactions to captopril, but they don't
indicate that therapy isn't effective.
A 60-year-old male patient is suspected of having coronary artery disease. Which noninvasive
diagnostic
method would the nurse expect to be ordered to evaluate cardiac changes?
A. Cardiac biopsy
B. Cardiac catheterization
C. MRI
D. Pericardiocentesis
C. MRI
Rationale:
MRI is a noninvasive procedure that aids in the diagnosis and detection of thoracic
aortic aneurysm and evaluation of coronary artery disease, pericardial disease, and cardiac masses.
Cardiac biopsy (Option A), cardiac catheterization (Option B), and pericardiocentesis (Option D) are
invasive
techniques used to evaluate cardiac changes.
When evaluating an ECG strip of a patient on a telemetry unit, the nurse notices the patient is having
premature
ventricular contractions (PVCs). What criterion on the ECG strip does the nurse use to evaluate the
presence
of PVCs?
A. An indiscernible PR interval
B. P waves that appear erratic
C. P waves that have a saw tooth configuration
D. A QRS complex followed by a compensatory pause
A+ TEST BANK 2
, Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
D. A QRS complex followed by a compensatory pause
Rationale:
In PVCs, the ECG shows a QRS complex followed by a compensatory pause that
ends when the underlying rhythm resumes. Options A and B are ECG criteria used to evaluate atrial
fibrillation. Option C is used to describe criteria for atrial flutter.
When locating Erb's point to hear aortic and pulmonic sounds, the nurse should place the stethoscope
at the:
A. fifth intercostal space near the midclavicular line.
B. fith intercostal space along the left sternal border.
C. second intercostal space at the left sternal border.
D. third intercostal space at the left sternal border.
D. third intercostal space at the left sternal border.
Rationale:
Erb's point is located at the third intercostal space at the left sternal border. The
fi fth intercostal space near the midclavicular line (Option A) is used to listen to the mitral area. The
fifth intercostal space along the left sternal border (Option B) is the location for the tricuspid area. The
second intercostal space at the left sternal border (Option C) is the location for the pulmonic area.
When caring for a patient with arterial occlusive disease, which of the following home health care
instructions is most appropriate for the nurse to give to the patient?
A. "You should massage your legs to relieve pain."
B. "It's best to sit and rest for several hours a day."
C. "Make sure the head of your bed is slightly elevated when sleeping."
D. "It's best to wear tight socks instead of no socks."
A+ TEST BANK 3
, Test Bank for Davis Advantage for
Understanding Medical-Surgical Nursing
C. "Make sure the head of your bed is slightly elevated when sleeping."
Rationale:
The patient should make sure the head of the bed is slightly elevated to aid perfusion
to the lower extremities. The patient shouldn't massage his legs
(Option A) because doing so could further damage tissue. Sitting for several hours a day (Option B)
isn't recommended. The patient should wear loose clothing, not constrictive clothing such as socks
with tight elastic (Option D), to avoid compressing the vessels in the legs.
The nurse prepares to administer an ACE inhibitor to a patient with an acute MI for which reason?
A. To minimize platelet aggregation
B. To reduce preload and afterload
C. To reduce myocardial oxygen consumption
D. To decrease myocardial oxygen demand
B. To reduce preload and afterload
Rationale:
ACE inhibitors reduce preload and afterload. Antiplatelet drugs minimize platelet
aggregation (Option A). Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption (Option C). Beta-adrenergic
blockers reduce the workload of the heart and myocardial oxygen demand (Option D).
Which of the following conditions can cause right-sided heart failure?
A. A ventricular septal defect
B. An anterior MI
C. An atrial septal defect
D. Constrictive pericarditis
C. An atrial septal defect
Rationale:
An atrial septal defect can lead to right-sided heart failure. Left-sided heart failure
can result from a ventricular septal defect (Option A), an anterior MI (Option B), or constrictive
pericarditis (Option D).
A+ TEST BANK 4
