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Georgette Review PMHNP Exam 1 Test Bank | Complete Verified Questions & Correct Answers | Graded A+ | Updated 2026/2027 | Instant Download

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This document contains the complete Georgette Review PMHNP Exam 1 test bank with verified questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales. It includes critical PMHNP content covering psychiatric intake assessment, patient safety, neuroleptic malignant syndrome management, dopamine agonists, clozapine monitoring, MAOI drug interactions, extrapyramidal symptoms, and psychiatric pharmacology. Updated 2026/2027, this resource is ideal for PMHNP students, psychiatric nurse practitioners, and exam candidates seeking high-yield prep material for passing exams on the first attempt, with clear explanations and scenario-based questions.

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Georgette Review PMHNP Exam

Georgette Review PMHNP Exam 1 ACTUAL
EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS with DETAILED RATIONALES
GRADED A+ GUARANTEED PASS- ACE YOUR
EXAM


Mr. Johnson is a client newly admitted to an inpatient psychiatric hospital. The PMHNP on call
at the facility plans to perform the initial intake assessment and diagnostic process. Mr.
Johnson asks to please talk in his room because, he says, "People make me nervous." His
room is at the end of the hallway and is the farthest away from the nursing station. The
PMHNP's action should be based on awareness that the best location to do the assessment is
a. In Mr. Johnson's room, because it is least noisy and most comfortable for him, thus
facilitating data collection
b. In the dayroom, which is full of people, to observe his interactions with other people
c. In a quiet place, but public enough to get assistance with client care should it be required
during the assessment
d. In the treatment room with the door closed, a neutral location




C. One PMHNP role is to control the milieu as an aspect of assessment, so the PMHNP should
choose a quiet place that is public enough to get assistance with client care should it be
required during the assessment.




What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments
of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?

A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)

A+ TEST BANK 1

, Georgette Review PMHNP Exam
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane)


A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the recommended direct acting dopamine receptor agonist to
help decrease the dopamine blockade. Danrolene (Dantrium) is a muscle relaxant.
Benzotropine (Cogentin) and Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are anticholinergic medications used
for extrapyramidal side effects (EPS).




Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for over
4 years. Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is strictly
contraindicated with Selegiline?

A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine




D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a patient is treated on a monoamine oxidase
inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive crisis and death.




A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the
following actions?

A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor
closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.


A+ TEST BANK 2

, Georgette Review PMHNP Exam
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.

The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or
granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune
system. At a WBC of 4,000, the recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential
twice a week while patient may continue clozapine in the absence of any other signs or
symptoms.




A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide
attempts. The PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only
antipsychotic to reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia?

A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
D) Clozaril (clozapine)




D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic medication that had been shown to
reduce the risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia.




A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po
daily for the past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an
outpatient follow-up visit. During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well,
reporting the flu. She also states she has not taken her medication in the last five days. Which
of the following symptoms would she be describing if you suspect selective serotonin
reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?

A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea.


A+ TEST BANK 3

, Georgette Review PMHNP Exam
A) Agitation; nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium

The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like
symptoms. If the patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of
autonomic instability.




Which of the following statements reflect the current understanding of dopamine (DA)
pathways and clinical symptoms in schizophrenia?

A) Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.

B) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA deficit in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.

C) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms
are related to DA deficit in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.
Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.


A) Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.

Negative symptoms & cognitive impairment are thought to be related to hypoactivity of the
mesocortical dopiminergic tract, which by its association with the prefrontal cortex and
neocortex contributes to motivation, planning, sequencing of behaviors in time, attention,
and social behavior. Positive symptoms (hallucination and delusions) are thought to be
caused by dopamine hyperactivity in the mesolimbic tract, which regulates emotion. This
hyperactivity could result in overactive modulation of nueurotransmission from the nucleus
accumbens.




Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is implicated in alertness and anxiety. What area of
the brain has a large majority of norepinephrine neurons?

A+ TEST BANK 4

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