ACBIS EXAM Actual Exam 2026/2027 Complete
Questions and Verified Answers with Detailed
Rationales Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: ACBIS Certification
Q1: Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for executive functions such as planning,
decision-making, and impulse control?
A. Temporal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Frontal lobe [CORRECT]
D. Occipital lobe
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The frontal lobe, particularly the prefrontal cortex, houses executive functions
including planning, judgment, decision-making, impulse control, and working memory. Damage
to this area commonly results in dysexecutive syndrome.
Q2: A client with traumatic brain injury presents with difficulty recognizing familiar faces. This
condition is known as:
A. Alexia
B. Prosopagnosia [CORRECT]
C. Agnosia
D. Aphasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prosopagnosia (face blindness) is a specific form of agnosia involving the fusiform
gyrus, typically resulting from bilateral or right hemisphere lesions, commonly seen in TBI
affecting temporal or occipital regions.
Q3: In the pathophysiology of secondary brain injury, which cascade involves the release of
excitatory neurotransmitters leading to calcium overload and cell death?
A. Ischemic cascade
B. Excitotoxic cascade [CORRECT]
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C. Inflammatory cascade
D. Apoptotic cascade
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The excitotoxic cascade involves excessive glutamate release following TBI, causing
prolonged NMDA receptor activation, calcium influx, mitochondrial dysfunction, and ultimately
neuronal death through necrosis or apoptosis.
Q4: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses three domains. Which combination represents
these domains?
A. Memory, attention, and language
B. Eye opening, verbal response, and motor response [CORRECT]
C. Pupil reaction, breathing pattern, and limb movement
D. Orientation, recall, and following commands
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The GCS evaluates level of consciousness through eye opening (1-4), verbal response
(1-5), and motor response (1-6), with total scores ranging from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert).
Q5: A 28-year-old male sustains a severe TBI in a motor vehicle accident. Three days post-
injury, he demonstrates decerebrate posturing. This indicates injury to:
A. Cerebral hemispheres only
B. Diencephalon or midbrain [CORRECT]
C. Cerebellum
D. Peripheral nervous system
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decerebrate posturing (extension of all four limbs) indicates severe brainstem
dysfunction at the midbrain or upper pons level, representing a poorer prognostic sign than
decorticate posturing.
Q6: Which type of brain injury involves damage to the brain occurring at the moment of impact
without penetration of the skull?
A. Penetrating brain injury
B. Closed head injury [CORRECT]
C. Anoxic brain injury
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D. Infectious brain injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Closed head injury involves trauma where the skull remains intact but brain damage
occurs through acceleration-deceleration forces, coup-contrecoup mechanisms, and
rotational/shear injuries.
Q7: During assessment of a client with TBI, the therapist notes that the client can follow simple
commands but becomes confused when asked to perform multi-step tasks. This suggests
impairment in:
A. Long-term memory
B. Working memory and divided attention [CORRECT]
C. Procedural memory
D. Semantic memory
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Working memory involves holding and manipulating information over short periods,
essential for multi-step task completion. Divided attention allows processing multiple stimuli
simultaneously—both commonly impaired in TBI.
Q8: The Rancho Los Amigos Levels of Cognitive Functioning scale ranges from:
A. Level I (no response) to Level X (purposeful, appropriate) [CORRECT]
B. Level 1 (mild) to Level 5 (severe)
C. Stage A (coma) to Stage E (community integration)
D. Grade 1 (minimal) to Grade 10 (complete recovery)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Rancho scale progresses from Level I (No Response) through Level X
(Purposeful, Appropriate: Modified Independent), providing a descriptive framework for
cognitive and behavioral recovery stages post-TBI.
Q9: Which neurotransmitter is most commonly implicated in post-TBI depression and is targeted
by many antidepressant medications?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin [CORRECT]
C. Acetylcholine
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D. GABA
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Serotonin dysregulation is frequently observed post-TBI due to raphe nucleus
vulnerability. SSRIs targeting serotonin reuptake are first-line pharmacological interventions for
post-TBI depression.
Q10: In community reintegration planning, the "least restrictive environment" principle mandates
that:
A. Clients should remain in institutional settings until fully recovered
B. Services should be provided in settings that maximize independence while ensuring safety
[CORRECT]
C. Family members must supervise all community activities
D. Vocational rehabilitation should be delayed until one year post-injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The least restrictive environment principle ensures individuals receive services in
settings promoting maximum autonomy and community participation commensurate with their
functional abilities and safety needs.
Q11: A client with left hemisphere stroke presents with non-fluent, effortful speech with
relatively preserved comprehension. This pattern indicates:
A. Wernicke's aphasia
B. Broca's aphasia [CORRECT]
C. Global aphasia
D. Conduction aphasia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Broca's aphasia (non-fluent/ expressive aphasia) results from left frontal lobe lesions
(Broca's area), characterized by halting, effortful speech production with relatively intact
auditory comprehension.
Q12: Which assessment tool is specifically designed to measure functional independence in self-
care, mobility, and cognition for brain injury rehabilitation?
A. Mini-Mental State Examination
B. Functional Independence Measure (FIM) [CORRECT]