NURS 1240 SAFETY EAQ QUESTIONS ANSWERED CORRECTLY LATEST 2026
Which required noninvasive assessment and management skills certification would the nurse need to
perform airway maintenance and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
- Basic Life Support (BLS)
- Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN)
- Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)
- Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) - Answers Basic Life Support (BLS)
rationale: BLS is the certification for emergency nursing that includes assessment and management
skills for airway maintenance and CPR. CEN is emergency nursing certification that validates the core
emergency nursing knowledge base. ACLS involves invasive airway management skills, pharmacology,
electrical therapies, and special resuscitation. PALS involves neonatal and pediatric resuscitation.
A client is receiving haloperidol for agitation, and the nurse is monitoring the client for side effects.
Which response identified by the nurse is unrelated to an extrapyramidal tract effect?
- Akathisia
- Opisthotonos
- Oculogyric crisis
- Hypertensive crisis - Answers Hypertensive crisis
rationale: A hypertensive crisis is not associated with extrapyramidal tract symtoms. Akathisia,
characterized by restlessness and twitching or crawling sensations in the muscles, is an
extrapyramidal side effect.
Opisthotonos, characterized by hyperextension and arching of the back, is an extrapyramidal side
effect.
Oculogyric crisis, characterized by the uncontrolled upward movement of the eyes, is an
extrapyramidal side effect.
A client who has been taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for 5 days returns to the clinic for a
follow-up visit. Which statement by the client indicates the medication has been effective?
- "I have less pain."
- "I have been sleeping better."
- "My blood glucose is under control!"
- "My blood pressure is coming down." - Answers "I have been sleeping better."
rationale: Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic that produces central nervous system depression in the
limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic areas of the brain. Zolpidem is not an analgesic, antidiabetic, or
antihypertensive medication.
Which action is accurate in explaining how neuroleptic medications act in the body to promote
mental health for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia?
- They inhibit enzymes at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They decrease serotonin at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They increase dopamine uptake at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They block access to dopamine receptors at the postsynaptic receptor site. - Answers They block
access to dopamine receptors at the postsynaptic receptor site
rationale: Neuroleptics block access to dopamine receptors, rather than inhibiting enzymes, at
postsynaptic sites. They increase, not decrease, serotonin at postsynaptic sites.
A client with a history of schizophrenia, who responds poorly to medication, is now being treated for
acute depression. Which informaton would the nurse provide in light of the information elicited from
the medication list and laboratory results?
Laboratory Results
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 45%.
Red blood cells (RBCs): 48 × 10/ml.
Platelet count: 150,000 mm
White blood cells (WBCs): 3,500 mm
,Neutrophils: 100 mm
Medications
Clozapine
Fluoxetine
- "Come in for weekly blood tests to monitor for medication-induced agranulocytosis."
- "Report incidents of unusual bleeding or easy bruising while taking fluoxetine."
- "Expect to be prescribed only 1 week's supply of fluoxetine at a time.*
- "Consume a high-protein diet to offset the risk of anemia while taking clozapine. - Answers "Come in
for weekly blood tests to monitor for medication-induced agranulocytosis."
rationale: The antipsychotic medication clozapine poses a risk for the development of agranulocytosis,
especially when combined with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor such as fluoxetine. The client's
neutrophil and white blood cell counts (WBCs) are borderline and therefore suggestive of the
disorder. Weekly blood testing to monitor these blood values is required. The client's platelet count is
in the low-normal range, but fluoxetine is not generally considered a factor in bleeding disorders.
Clozapine, not fluoxetine, would likely be prescribed on a week-by-week basis to both help manage
side effects and encourage weekly visits for lab work. Clozapine is not generally considered a factor in
the development of anemia.
Phenytoin suspension 200 mg is prescribed for a client with epilepsy. The suspension contains 125
mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer? - Answers 8 mL
rationale: The prescribed dose is 200 mg. The available concentration is 125 mg in 5 mL. Use the
dimensional analysis and ratio and proportion methods to determine how many milliliters the nurse
would administer. 200 mg x 5
mL/125 mg = 8 mL.
A client is to receive 0.22 g of zinc sulfate by mouth. Each tablet contains 110 mg. How many tablets
will the nurse administer? - Answers 2 tablets
rationale: The prescribed dose is 0.22 g. The medication is available in 110 mg tablets. First, convert
the prescribed dose in grams to the available medication in milligrams. Then use the dimensional
analysis and ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate number of tablets to be
administered. 0.22 g × 1000 mg/g x
1 tablet/110 mg = 2 tablets.
Atenolol 150 mg by mouth is prescribed for a client with hypertension. Each tablet contains 50 mg.
How many tablets will the nurse administer? - Answers 3 tablets
rationale: Use the dimensional analysis and or ratio and proportion method to determine how many
tablets the nurse would administer. 150 mg × 1 tablet/50 mg = 3 tablets.
Which medication is the first choice of medication for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder (ADHD)?
- Clonidine
- Guanfacine
- Atomoxetine
- Methylphenidate - Answers Methylphenidate
rationale: Methylphenidate is the first choice of medication for the treatment of
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Clonidine, guanfacine, and atomoxetine are
nonstimulants used to treat ADHD; these medications are less effective than methylphenidate.
Which medication is indicated to treat shift-work sleep disorder (SWSD)?
- Caffeine
- Modafinil
- Atomoxetine
- Methylphenidate - Answers Modafinil
,rationale: Modafinil is a unique nonamphetamine stimulant used to treat SWSD. This medication
promotes wakefulness in clients suffering from excessive sleepiness associated with SWSD. Caffeine is
a central nervous stimulant used to promote wakefulness, but this medication is not as effective in
the treatment of SWSD. Atomoxetine is a nonstimulant used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder (ADHD). Methylphenidate is considered a first-choice medication for the treatment of ADHD.
A client with schizophrenia who is receiving an antipsychotic medication begins to exhibit a shuffling
gait and tremors. The primary health care provider prescribes the anticholinergic medication
benztropine, 2 mg daily. Which symptom should the nurse should inquire about when assessing the
client?
- Constipation
- Hypertension
- Increased salivation
- Excessive perspiration - Answers Constipation
rationale: The anticholinergic activity of each medication is magnified, and adverse effects such as
paralytic ileus may occur. Hypotension, not hypertension, occurs with anticholinergic medications.
Dryness of the mouth, not increased salivation, occurs with anticholinergic medications. Decreased,
not increased, perspiration occurs with anticholinergic medications.
A client has a prescription for 125 mg of phenytoin by mouth three times a day. Phenytoin is supplied
as an oral suspension of 25 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters of solution will the nurse administer for
each dose? - Answers 25 mL
rationale: The correct amount of solution to administer at each dose is 25 mL. Solve the problem with
the use of ratio and proportion
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia, paranoid type, has been receiving a phenothiazine
medication. Which action is important for the nurse to take to assist this client when the psychiatric
daycare center plans a fishing trip?
- Provide the client with sunscreen.
- Caution the client to limit exertion during the trip.
- Give the client an extra dose of medication to take after lunch.
- Take the client's blood pressure before allowing participation in the outing. - Answers Provide the
client with sunscreen
rationale: Phenothiazines commonly cause a photosensitivity that can be controlled with sunscreen.
Limiting activity is not a necessary precaution when phenothiazines are prescribed. The medication
must be administered as prescribed. Participating in the outing should not negatively affect the
client's blood pressure.
Which precaution will the nurse consider when initiating treatment with fluoxetine?
- It must be given with milk and crackers to prevent hyperacidity and discomfort.
- Eating cheese or pickled herring or drinking wine may cause a hypertensive crisis.
- The blood level may not be sufficient to cause noticeable improvement for 2 to 4 weeks.
- The blood level should be checked weekly for 3 months to make sure it is appropriate. - Answers The
blood level may not be sufficient to cause noticeable improvement for 2 to 4 weeks
rationale: Fluoxetine does not produce an immediate effect; nursing measures must be continued to
reduce the risk for suicide. Consuming milk and crackers to help prevent hyperacidity and discomfort
is not necessary. Avoiding cheese; pickled herring, and wine is a precaution taken with monoamine
oxidase inhibitors. Weekly blood level checks are not necessary with fluoxetine.
Which drug category applies to cocaine?
- Opioids
- Stimulants
- Barbiturates
- Hallucinogens - Answers Stimulants
rationale: Cocaine is classified as a stimulant. It is inhaled in its powdered form or smoked as crack; its
use creates experiences similar to but more intense than those experienced with amphetamines, and
, its withdrawal results in a deeper crash. Opioids and barbiturates are central nervous system
depressants. Hallucinogens produce cerebral excitation that can yield a state similar to psychosis.
Which emergency severity index (ESI) level would be considered a high priority for the nurse caring
for clients in the emergency department (ED)?
- ESI-1
- ESI-2
- ESI-3
- ESI-4 - Answers ESI-1
rationale: ESI-1 should be considered a high priority for care in the ED because the ESI-1 clients are in
unstable condition. ESI-2 indicates that clients can wait 10 minutes for care in the ED. ESI-3 level
clients can wait up to 1 hour because their conditions are stable. ESI-4 clients' treatment can be
delayed for longer, depending on the cases in the ED.
Colchicine 1200 mcg orally is prescribed for client with gout. Each tablet contains 0.6 mg.
How many tablets will the nurse administer? - Answers 2 tablets
rationale: The prescribed dose is 1200 mcg. The available medication is a 0.6-mg (600 mcg) tablet.
First, convert the prescribed medication to units of the available medication. Then use the
dimensional analysis and/or ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate number of
tablets to be administered. 0.6 mg/ tab x 1000
mcg/ 1 mg = 600 mcg/ tab. 1200 mcg x Itab/ 600 mcg = 2 tabs.
A client is to receive metoclopramide 15 mg orally before meals. The concentrated solution contains
10 mg/mL. How many milliliters of solution will the nurse administer? - Answers 1.5 mL
rationale: The prescribed dose is 15 mg. The available concentration is 10 mg/mL. Use the
dimensional analysis and or ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate amount of
medication to be administered. 15 mg
x 1mL/10 mg = 1.5 mL.
How will the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of the training after teaching a family member how to
administer subcutaneous enoxaparin sodium?
- Return demonstration on a manikin.
- Verbalization of the side effects of the medication.
- Observing the family member administering enoxaparin sodium to the client.
- Correctly verbalizing all necessary steps in enoxaparin sodium administration. - Answers Observing
the family member administering enoxaparin sodium to the client
rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching is to observe the family member
administering the medication to the client. The family member may be able to perform a
subcutaneous injection on a manikin but fear hurting the family member. Knowing the side effects of
enoxaparin sodium is important, but it does not provide any information as to the family member's
ability to administer the medication. The family member may be able to verbalize all the steps but
fear puncturing the skin with the needle.
Which assessment after administration of diltiazem to a client with supraventricular tachycardia (ST)
and a heart rate of 170 beats/minute indicates that the medication was effective?
- Increased urine output
- Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- Heart rate of 98 beats/ minute
- No longer complaining of heart palpations - Answers Heart rate of 98 beats/ minute
rationale: Diltiazem hydrochloride's purpose is to slow down the heart rate. ST has a heart rate of 150
to 250 beats/minute. A heart rate of 98 beats/minute indicates that the diltiazem hydrochloride is
having the desired effect. Increased urine output may occur over a period of time because of the
increased ventricular filling time but would not occur until after the heart rate had stabilized.
Hypotension is a side effect of diltiazem hydrochloride, not a desired effect. Heart palpations are
experienced by some with various dysrhythmias. A decreased sensation of heart palpations is a
positive finding but is not present in all clients.
Which relationship reflects the relationship of naloxone to morphine sulfate?
Which required noninvasive assessment and management skills certification would the nurse need to
perform airway maintenance and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?
- Basic Life Support (BLS)
- Certified Emergency Nurse (CEN)
- Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)
- Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) - Answers Basic Life Support (BLS)
rationale: BLS is the certification for emergency nursing that includes assessment and management
skills for airway maintenance and CPR. CEN is emergency nursing certification that validates the core
emergency nursing knowledge base. ACLS involves invasive airway management skills, pharmacology,
electrical therapies, and special resuscitation. PALS involves neonatal and pediatric resuscitation.
A client is receiving haloperidol for agitation, and the nurse is monitoring the client for side effects.
Which response identified by the nurse is unrelated to an extrapyramidal tract effect?
- Akathisia
- Opisthotonos
- Oculogyric crisis
- Hypertensive crisis - Answers Hypertensive crisis
rationale: A hypertensive crisis is not associated with extrapyramidal tract symtoms. Akathisia,
characterized by restlessness and twitching or crawling sensations in the muscles, is an
extrapyramidal side effect.
Opisthotonos, characterized by hyperextension and arching of the back, is an extrapyramidal side
effect.
Oculogyric crisis, characterized by the uncontrolled upward movement of the eyes, is an
extrapyramidal side effect.
A client who has been taking the prescribed dose of zolpidem for 5 days returns to the clinic for a
follow-up visit. Which statement by the client indicates the medication has been effective?
- "I have less pain."
- "I have been sleeping better."
- "My blood glucose is under control!"
- "My blood pressure is coming down." - Answers "I have been sleeping better."
rationale: Zolpidem is a sedative-hypnotic that produces central nervous system depression in the
limbic, thalamic, and hypothalamic areas of the brain. Zolpidem is not an analgesic, antidiabetic, or
antihypertensive medication.
Which action is accurate in explaining how neuroleptic medications act in the body to promote
mental health for clients diagnosed with schizophrenia?
- They inhibit enzymes at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They decrease serotonin at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They increase dopamine uptake at the postsynaptic receptor site.
- They block access to dopamine receptors at the postsynaptic receptor site. - Answers They block
access to dopamine receptors at the postsynaptic receptor site
rationale: Neuroleptics block access to dopamine receptors, rather than inhibiting enzymes, at
postsynaptic sites. They increase, not decrease, serotonin at postsynaptic sites.
A client with a history of schizophrenia, who responds poorly to medication, is now being treated for
acute depression. Which informaton would the nurse provide in light of the information elicited from
the medication list and laboratory results?
Laboratory Results
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 45%.
Red blood cells (RBCs): 48 × 10/ml.
Platelet count: 150,000 mm
White blood cells (WBCs): 3,500 mm
,Neutrophils: 100 mm
Medications
Clozapine
Fluoxetine
- "Come in for weekly blood tests to monitor for medication-induced agranulocytosis."
- "Report incidents of unusual bleeding or easy bruising while taking fluoxetine."
- "Expect to be prescribed only 1 week's supply of fluoxetine at a time.*
- "Consume a high-protein diet to offset the risk of anemia while taking clozapine. - Answers "Come in
for weekly blood tests to monitor for medication-induced agranulocytosis."
rationale: The antipsychotic medication clozapine poses a risk for the development of agranulocytosis,
especially when combined with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor such as fluoxetine. The client's
neutrophil and white blood cell counts (WBCs) are borderline and therefore suggestive of the
disorder. Weekly blood testing to monitor these blood values is required. The client's platelet count is
in the low-normal range, but fluoxetine is not generally considered a factor in bleeding disorders.
Clozapine, not fluoxetine, would likely be prescribed on a week-by-week basis to both help manage
side effects and encourage weekly visits for lab work. Clozapine is not generally considered a factor in
the development of anemia.
Phenytoin suspension 200 mg is prescribed for a client with epilepsy. The suspension contains 125
mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer? - Answers 8 mL
rationale: The prescribed dose is 200 mg. The available concentration is 125 mg in 5 mL. Use the
dimensional analysis and ratio and proportion methods to determine how many milliliters the nurse
would administer. 200 mg x 5
mL/125 mg = 8 mL.
A client is to receive 0.22 g of zinc sulfate by mouth. Each tablet contains 110 mg. How many tablets
will the nurse administer? - Answers 2 tablets
rationale: The prescribed dose is 0.22 g. The medication is available in 110 mg tablets. First, convert
the prescribed dose in grams to the available medication in milligrams. Then use the dimensional
analysis and ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate number of tablets to be
administered. 0.22 g × 1000 mg/g x
1 tablet/110 mg = 2 tablets.
Atenolol 150 mg by mouth is prescribed for a client with hypertension. Each tablet contains 50 mg.
How many tablets will the nurse administer? - Answers 3 tablets
rationale: Use the dimensional analysis and or ratio and proportion method to determine how many
tablets the nurse would administer. 150 mg × 1 tablet/50 mg = 3 tablets.
Which medication is the first choice of medication for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder (ADHD)?
- Clonidine
- Guanfacine
- Atomoxetine
- Methylphenidate - Answers Methylphenidate
rationale: Methylphenidate is the first choice of medication for the treatment of
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Clonidine, guanfacine, and atomoxetine are
nonstimulants used to treat ADHD; these medications are less effective than methylphenidate.
Which medication is indicated to treat shift-work sleep disorder (SWSD)?
- Caffeine
- Modafinil
- Atomoxetine
- Methylphenidate - Answers Modafinil
,rationale: Modafinil is a unique nonamphetamine stimulant used to treat SWSD. This medication
promotes wakefulness in clients suffering from excessive sleepiness associated with SWSD. Caffeine is
a central nervous stimulant used to promote wakefulness, but this medication is not as effective in
the treatment of SWSD. Atomoxetine is a nonstimulant used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder (ADHD). Methylphenidate is considered a first-choice medication for the treatment of ADHD.
A client with schizophrenia who is receiving an antipsychotic medication begins to exhibit a shuffling
gait and tremors. The primary health care provider prescribes the anticholinergic medication
benztropine, 2 mg daily. Which symptom should the nurse should inquire about when assessing the
client?
- Constipation
- Hypertension
- Increased salivation
- Excessive perspiration - Answers Constipation
rationale: The anticholinergic activity of each medication is magnified, and adverse effects such as
paralytic ileus may occur. Hypotension, not hypertension, occurs with anticholinergic medications.
Dryness of the mouth, not increased salivation, occurs with anticholinergic medications. Decreased,
not increased, perspiration occurs with anticholinergic medications.
A client has a prescription for 125 mg of phenytoin by mouth three times a day. Phenytoin is supplied
as an oral suspension of 25 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters of solution will the nurse administer for
each dose? - Answers 25 mL
rationale: The correct amount of solution to administer at each dose is 25 mL. Solve the problem with
the use of ratio and proportion
A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia, paranoid type, has been receiving a phenothiazine
medication. Which action is important for the nurse to take to assist this client when the psychiatric
daycare center plans a fishing trip?
- Provide the client with sunscreen.
- Caution the client to limit exertion during the trip.
- Give the client an extra dose of medication to take after lunch.
- Take the client's blood pressure before allowing participation in the outing. - Answers Provide the
client with sunscreen
rationale: Phenothiazines commonly cause a photosensitivity that can be controlled with sunscreen.
Limiting activity is not a necessary precaution when phenothiazines are prescribed. The medication
must be administered as prescribed. Participating in the outing should not negatively affect the
client's blood pressure.
Which precaution will the nurse consider when initiating treatment with fluoxetine?
- It must be given with milk and crackers to prevent hyperacidity and discomfort.
- Eating cheese or pickled herring or drinking wine may cause a hypertensive crisis.
- The blood level may not be sufficient to cause noticeable improvement for 2 to 4 weeks.
- The blood level should be checked weekly for 3 months to make sure it is appropriate. - Answers The
blood level may not be sufficient to cause noticeable improvement for 2 to 4 weeks
rationale: Fluoxetine does not produce an immediate effect; nursing measures must be continued to
reduce the risk for suicide. Consuming milk and crackers to help prevent hyperacidity and discomfort
is not necessary. Avoiding cheese; pickled herring, and wine is a precaution taken with monoamine
oxidase inhibitors. Weekly blood level checks are not necessary with fluoxetine.
Which drug category applies to cocaine?
- Opioids
- Stimulants
- Barbiturates
- Hallucinogens - Answers Stimulants
rationale: Cocaine is classified as a stimulant. It is inhaled in its powdered form or smoked as crack; its
use creates experiences similar to but more intense than those experienced with amphetamines, and
, its withdrawal results in a deeper crash. Opioids and barbiturates are central nervous system
depressants. Hallucinogens produce cerebral excitation that can yield a state similar to psychosis.
Which emergency severity index (ESI) level would be considered a high priority for the nurse caring
for clients in the emergency department (ED)?
- ESI-1
- ESI-2
- ESI-3
- ESI-4 - Answers ESI-1
rationale: ESI-1 should be considered a high priority for care in the ED because the ESI-1 clients are in
unstable condition. ESI-2 indicates that clients can wait 10 minutes for care in the ED. ESI-3 level
clients can wait up to 1 hour because their conditions are stable. ESI-4 clients' treatment can be
delayed for longer, depending on the cases in the ED.
Colchicine 1200 mcg orally is prescribed for client with gout. Each tablet contains 0.6 mg.
How many tablets will the nurse administer? - Answers 2 tablets
rationale: The prescribed dose is 1200 mcg. The available medication is a 0.6-mg (600 mcg) tablet.
First, convert the prescribed medication to units of the available medication. Then use the
dimensional analysis and/or ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate number of
tablets to be administered. 0.6 mg/ tab x 1000
mcg/ 1 mg = 600 mcg/ tab. 1200 mcg x Itab/ 600 mcg = 2 tabs.
A client is to receive metoclopramide 15 mg orally before meals. The concentrated solution contains
10 mg/mL. How many milliliters of solution will the nurse administer? - Answers 1.5 mL
rationale: The prescribed dose is 15 mg. The available concentration is 10 mg/mL. Use the
dimensional analysis and or ratio and proportion methods to determine the appropriate amount of
medication to be administered. 15 mg
x 1mL/10 mg = 1.5 mL.
How will the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of the training after teaching a family member how to
administer subcutaneous enoxaparin sodium?
- Return demonstration on a manikin.
- Verbalization of the side effects of the medication.
- Observing the family member administering enoxaparin sodium to the client.
- Correctly verbalizing all necessary steps in enoxaparin sodium administration. - Answers Observing
the family member administering enoxaparin sodium to the client
rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching is to observe the family member
administering the medication to the client. The family member may be able to perform a
subcutaneous injection on a manikin but fear hurting the family member. Knowing the side effects of
enoxaparin sodium is important, but it does not provide any information as to the family member's
ability to administer the medication. The family member may be able to verbalize all the steps but
fear puncturing the skin with the needle.
Which assessment after administration of diltiazem to a client with supraventricular tachycardia (ST)
and a heart rate of 170 beats/minute indicates that the medication was effective?
- Increased urine output
- Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
- Heart rate of 98 beats/ minute
- No longer complaining of heart palpations - Answers Heart rate of 98 beats/ minute
rationale: Diltiazem hydrochloride's purpose is to slow down the heart rate. ST has a heart rate of 150
to 250 beats/minute. A heart rate of 98 beats/minute indicates that the diltiazem hydrochloride is
having the desired effect. Increased urine output may occur over a period of time because of the
increased ventricular filling time but would not occur until after the heart rate had stabilized.
Hypotension is a side effect of diltiazem hydrochloride, not a desired effect. Heart palpations are
experienced by some with various dysrhythmias. A decreased sensation of heart palpations is a
positive finding but is not present in all clients.
Which relationship reflects the relationship of naloxone to morphine sulfate?
