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NSG 5140 Week 10 Final Exam Due 26th October Complete Actual Exam Questions 1- 50 Screenshots NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology NSG5140 Online Exam Requires Respondus Lockdown Browser + Webcam Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+

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NSG 5140 Week 10 Final Exam Due 26th October Complete Actual Exam Questions 1- 50 Screenshots NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology NSG5140 Online Exam Requires Respondus Lockdown Browser + Webcam Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+

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NSG 5140 Week 10 Final Exam Due 26th October Complete Actual
Exam Questions 1- 50 Screenshots NSG 5140 Advanced
Pathophysiology NSG5140 Online Exam Requires Respondus
Lockdown Browser + Webcam Exam Questions and Answers | 100%
Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+

,
,
,
,NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology - Comprehensive Practice Final Exam
100 Representative Questions with Answers and Rationales


CELLULAR INJURY AND GENETICS (Questions 1-15)
1. A patient experiences a myocardial infarction. After 30 minutes of ischemia,
which cellular change indicates irreversible injury?
A) Cellular swelling
B) Ribosomal detachment
C) Mitochondrial dense body formation
D) Nuclear chromatin clumping
Answer: C
Rationale: Mitochondrial dense body formation (amorphous densities) indicates
irreversible mitochondrial damage. Cellular swelling, ribosomal detachment, and
nuclear changes can occur with reversible injury. The point of no return is marked
by severe mitochondrial dysfunction .


2. Which statement accurately describes apoptosis?
A) It involves random destruction of cell groups with inflammation
B) It is characterized by cellular swelling and membrane rupture
C) It involves programmed death of scattered single cells without inflammation
D) It results from ATP depletion and causes tissue necrosis
Answer: C
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death affecting individual cells,
characterized by cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, and formation of
apoptotic bodies that are phagocytosed without triggering inflammation. This
contrasts with necrosis, which involves cell swelling, inflammation, and tissue
damage .


3. What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

,A) Enzymatic digestion halts DNA synthesis
B) Influx of calcium ions halts ATP production
C) Sodium influx causes mitochondrial edema
D) Potassium efflux destroys mitochondrial infrastructure
Answer: B
Rationale: Plasma membrane damage allows massive calcium influx into the cell
and mitochondria. Elevated mitochondrial calcium disrupts oxidative
phosphorylation, halting ATP production and triggering opening of mitochondrial
permeability transition pores .


4. Which cellular organelle packages proteins for secretion to the extracellular
environment?
A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Lysosomes
C) Golgi complex
D) Ribosomes
Answer: C
Rationale: The Golgi complex modifies, sorts, and packages proteins received
from the rough ER into secretory vesicles for exocytosis. While the rough ER
synthesizes proteins, the Golgi completes post-translational modification and
directs trafficking .


5. During hypoxic injury, sodium and water move into the cell because:
A) The sodium-potassium pump fails due to decreased ATP
B) Osmotic pressure pulls sodium across the membrane
C) Oxygen is unavailable to bind sodium extracellularly
D) Chloride follows sodium, increasing intracellular osmolarity
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypoxia reduces ATP production, impairing Na+/K+-ATPase function.
This prevents sodium extrusion, allowing sodium to accumulate intracellularly
followed by water influx (oncosis), causing cellular swelling .

,6. A 3-day-old infant presents with mildly elevated unconjugated bilirubin. This
most likely represents:
A) Physiologic jaundice
B) Kernicterus
C) Pathologic jaundice
D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Answer: A
Rationale: Physiologic jaundice occurs around day 2-4 in newborns due to
immature hepatic UDP-glucuronyltransferase activity and increased RBC
breakdown. It typically resolves spontaneously. Kernicterus is bilirubin-induced
neurologic damage .


7. Which genetic process best explains why one identical twin develops asthma
while the other does not?
A) Genomic imprinting
B) Epigenetic modifications
C) Autosomal dominant inheritance
D) Mitochondrial inheritance
Answer: B
Rationale: Epigenetic modifications (DNA methylation, histone acetylation) alter
gene expression without changing DNA sequence. Environmental factors can
trigger these modifications, explaining discordance in monozygotic twins for
complex diseases like asthma .


8. Transcription is best defined as:
A) Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
B) Synthesis of protein from an RNA template
C) DNA replication during cell division
D) Post-translational protein modification

, Answer: A
Rationale: Transcription is the process where RNA polymerase synthesizes
complementary RNA from a DNA template. Translation (answer B) is protein
synthesis from mRNA .


9. What is the most common cause of Down syndrome?
A) Paternal translocation
B) Maternal nondisjunction error
C) Paternal viral illness
D) Maternal advanced age-related translocation
Answer: B
Rationale: Approximately 95% of Down syndrome cases result from meiotic
nondisjunction (usually maternal), producing trisomy 21. Advanced maternal age
increases risk, but the mechanism is nondisjunction, not translocation .


10. A person with XXY karyotype has which genetic disorder?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) Triple X syndrome
Answer: B
Rationale: Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) results from an extra X chromosome in
males. Features include hypogonadism, infertility, tall stature, and learning
difficulties .


11. Cystic fibrosis is caused by which type of genetic inheritance pattern?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked dominant
D) X-linked recessive

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