1
NBSTSA PSI CST EXAM REVIEW Actual
Exam 2026/2027 Complete Questions and
Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: CST Exam Review
Q1: What is the primary purpose of performing a surgical "time out" prior to incision?
A. To verify the anesthesia plan
B. To allow the surgeon to review the operative steps
C. To confirm patient identity, procedure, site, and availability of implants [CORRECT]
D. To check the functionality of surgical equipment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The surgical time out is a mandatory safety protocol that confirms correct patient
identity, procedure, surgical site, and ensures all necessary implants and equipment are available
before incision to prevent wrong-site surgery.
Q2: Which skin preparation solution is contraindicated for use on the face and mucous
membranes due to potential ototoxicity and thyroid absorption?
A. Povidone-iodine (Betadine)
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Iodine tincture [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iodine tincture contains alcohol and free iodine that can be absorbed through mucous
membranes and is ototoxic if it enters the ear canal, making it unsafe for facial and mucosal prep.
Q3: During a total abdominal hysterectomy, the surgeon asks for a Heaney clamp. This
instrument is specifically designed for:
A. Occluding the aorta during vascular surgery
B. Clamping the uterine vessels and ligaments during hysterectomy [CORRECT]
,2
C. Grasping the fallopian tubes during tubal ligation
D. Retracting the bladder during C-section
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Heaney clamp is a curved, heavy clamp with transverse serrations designed
specifically for clamping the uterine vessels and cardinal ligaments during hysterectomy
procedures.
Q4: The sterilization method that uses hydrogen peroxide vapor and low-temperature gas plasma
is:
A. Steam autoclaving
B. Ethylene oxide sterilization
C. Sterrad (hydrogen peroxide plasma) sterilization [CORRECT]
D. Dry heat sterilization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sterrad sterilization utilizes hydrogen peroxide vapor that is energized into a plasma
state, providing low-temperature sterilization suitable for heat-sensitive instruments.
Q5: A surgical technologist notices a break in sterile technique during a procedure. The
appropriate first action is to:
A. Wait until the procedure is completed to report the incident
B. Immediately inform the circulator and surgeon of the break [CORRECT]
C. Document the incident in the patient's chart personally
D. Ignore it if the patient is not showing signs of infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Surgical conscience requires immediate reporting of any break in sterile technique to
the surgical team so corrective action can be taken to prevent surgical site infection.
Q6: The proper sequence for donning sterile gown and gloves using the closed gloving method
is:
A. Gown first, then gloves over the cuff [CORRECT]
B. Gloves first, then gown
C. Gown and gloves simultaneously
,3
D. It does not matter as long as sterility is maintained
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In closed gloving, the surgical technologist dons the sterile gown first with hands
remaining inside the sleeves, then dons gloves while keeping the gloved fingers inside the gown
cuff to maintain sterility.
Q7: Which anatomical structure is at greatest risk of injury during a cholecystectomy?
A. Hepatic artery
B. Common bile duct [CORRECT]
C. Portal vein
D. Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The common bile duct is in close proximity to the cystic duct and gallbladder
infundibulum, making it the structure most commonly injured during cholecystectomy due to
anatomical variations and inflammation.
Q8: The drug atropine is classified as:
A. A beta-blocker
B. An anticholinergic [CORRECT]
C. A cholinergic agonist
D. An antihistamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that blocks muscarinic receptors, used to
decrease secretions and treat bradycardia during surgery.
Q9: When preparing for a cesarean section, the surgical technologist should ensure the following
position for the patient:
A. Supine with left lateral tilt [CORRECT]
B. Lithotomy position
C. Prone position
D. Reverse Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: A
, 4
Rationale: Left lateral tilt (using a wedge under the right hip) displaces the gravid uterus off the
inferior vena cava to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome and maintain venous return.
Q10: A Class 5 chemical integrator (CI) indicates sterilization by:
A. Changing color when exposed to steam
B. Responding to time, temperature, and steam [CORRECT]
C. Only measuring temperature
D. Detecting the presence of air in the sterilizer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Class 5 chemical integrators are designed to respond to all critical sterilization
parameters—time, temperature, and presence of steam—providing the highest level of chemical
monitoring.
Q11: The Allen test is performed preoperatively to assess:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Adequate collateral circulation to the hand [CORRECT]
C. Range of motion in the wrist
D. Nerve conduction in the upper extremity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Allen test evaluates patency of the radial and ulnar arteries by compressing both,
releasing one, and observing capillary refill to ensure adequate collateral circulation before radial
artery cannulation.
Q12: Which suture material is absorbable and synthetic?
A. Silk
B. Polypropylene (Prolene)
C. Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) [CORRECT]
D. Stainless steel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) is a synthetic braided absorbable suture composed of
glycolide and lactide copolymer, absorbed by hydrolysis over 56-70 days.
Q13: During orthopedic surgery, a tourniquet is typically inflated to:
NBSTSA PSI CST EXAM REVIEW Actual
Exam 2026/2027 Complete Questions and
Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: CST Exam Review
Q1: What is the primary purpose of performing a surgical "time out" prior to incision?
A. To verify the anesthesia plan
B. To allow the surgeon to review the operative steps
C. To confirm patient identity, procedure, site, and availability of implants [CORRECT]
D. To check the functionality of surgical equipment
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The surgical time out is a mandatory safety protocol that confirms correct patient
identity, procedure, surgical site, and ensures all necessary implants and equipment are available
before incision to prevent wrong-site surgery.
Q2: Which skin preparation solution is contraindicated for use on the face and mucous
membranes due to potential ototoxicity and thyroid absorption?
A. Povidone-iodine (Betadine)
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Iodine tincture [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iodine tincture contains alcohol and free iodine that can be absorbed through mucous
membranes and is ototoxic if it enters the ear canal, making it unsafe for facial and mucosal prep.
Q3: During a total abdominal hysterectomy, the surgeon asks for a Heaney clamp. This
instrument is specifically designed for:
A. Occluding the aorta during vascular surgery
B. Clamping the uterine vessels and ligaments during hysterectomy [CORRECT]
,2
C. Grasping the fallopian tubes during tubal ligation
D. Retracting the bladder during C-section
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Heaney clamp is a curved, heavy clamp with transverse serrations designed
specifically for clamping the uterine vessels and cardinal ligaments during hysterectomy
procedures.
Q4: The sterilization method that uses hydrogen peroxide vapor and low-temperature gas plasma
is:
A. Steam autoclaving
B. Ethylene oxide sterilization
C. Sterrad (hydrogen peroxide plasma) sterilization [CORRECT]
D. Dry heat sterilization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sterrad sterilization utilizes hydrogen peroxide vapor that is energized into a plasma
state, providing low-temperature sterilization suitable for heat-sensitive instruments.
Q5: A surgical technologist notices a break in sterile technique during a procedure. The
appropriate first action is to:
A. Wait until the procedure is completed to report the incident
B. Immediately inform the circulator and surgeon of the break [CORRECT]
C. Document the incident in the patient's chart personally
D. Ignore it if the patient is not showing signs of infection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Surgical conscience requires immediate reporting of any break in sterile technique to
the surgical team so corrective action can be taken to prevent surgical site infection.
Q6: The proper sequence for donning sterile gown and gloves using the closed gloving method
is:
A. Gown first, then gloves over the cuff [CORRECT]
B. Gloves first, then gown
C. Gown and gloves simultaneously
,3
D. It does not matter as long as sterility is maintained
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In closed gloving, the surgical technologist dons the sterile gown first with hands
remaining inside the sleeves, then dons gloves while keeping the gloved fingers inside the gown
cuff to maintain sterility.
Q7: Which anatomical structure is at greatest risk of injury during a cholecystectomy?
A. Hepatic artery
B. Common bile duct [CORRECT]
C. Portal vein
D. Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The common bile duct is in close proximity to the cystic duct and gallbladder
infundibulum, making it the structure most commonly injured during cholecystectomy due to
anatomical variations and inflammation.
Q8: The drug atropine is classified as:
A. A beta-blocker
B. An anticholinergic [CORRECT]
C. A cholinergic agonist
D. An antihistamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic medication that blocks muscarinic receptors, used to
decrease secretions and treat bradycardia during surgery.
Q9: When preparing for a cesarean section, the surgical technologist should ensure the following
position for the patient:
A. Supine with left lateral tilt [CORRECT]
B. Lithotomy position
C. Prone position
D. Reverse Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: A
, 4
Rationale: Left lateral tilt (using a wedge under the right hip) displaces the gravid uterus off the
inferior vena cava to prevent supine hypotensive syndrome and maintain venous return.
Q10: A Class 5 chemical integrator (CI) indicates sterilization by:
A. Changing color when exposed to steam
B. Responding to time, temperature, and steam [CORRECT]
C. Only measuring temperature
D. Detecting the presence of air in the sterilizer
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Class 5 chemical integrators are designed to respond to all critical sterilization
parameters—time, temperature, and presence of steam—providing the highest level of chemical
monitoring.
Q11: The Allen test is performed preoperatively to assess:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Adequate collateral circulation to the hand [CORRECT]
C. Range of motion in the wrist
D. Nerve conduction in the upper extremity
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Allen test evaluates patency of the radial and ulnar arteries by compressing both,
releasing one, and observing capillary refill to ensure adequate collateral circulation before radial
artery cannulation.
Q12: Which suture material is absorbable and synthetic?
A. Silk
B. Polypropylene (Prolene)
C. Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) [CORRECT]
D. Stainless steel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Polyglactin 910 (Vicryl) is a synthetic braided absorbable suture composed of
glycolide and lactide copolymer, absorbed by hydrolysis over 56-70 days.
Q13: During orthopedic surgery, a tourniquet is typically inflated to:
