1
NBSTSA PSI CST EXAM REVIEW Actual
Exam 2026/2027 Complete Questions and
Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: CST Exam Review
Q1: Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the surgical technologist during the
preoperative phase?
A. Administering anesthesia to the patient
B. Performing the surgical skin prep and draping [CORRECT]
C. Conducting the preoperative assessment interview
D. Prescribing prophylactic antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The surgical technologist's primary preoperative responsibility includes performing
the surgical skin prep and establishing the sterile field through proper draping techniques,
working under the supervision of the registered nurse and surgeon.
Q2: A patient is scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. Which skin prep solution is
contraindicated for use in the presence of intestinal spillage?
A. Chlorhexidine gluconate
B. Povidone-iodine [CORRECT]
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Hexachlorophene
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Povidone-iodine is contraindicated in the presence of intestinal spillage because it is
inactivated by organic matter such as blood, feces, and intestinal contents, reducing its
antimicrobial effectiveness.
Q3: The surgical technologist is preparing a patient for a total knee arthroplasty. Which position
is most appropriate for this procedure?
A. Supine with arms tucked
1
,2
B. Lithotomy position
C. Supine with a tourniquet applied to the thigh [CORRECT]
D. Prone position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Total knee arthroplasty is performed with the patient in supine position, and a
pneumatic tourniquet is applied to the thigh to create a bloodless surgical field during the
procedure.
Q4: During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon requests a "critical view of safety." This
technique involves identifying which two structures?
A. Common bile duct and hepatic artery
B. Cystic duct and cystic artery [CORRECT]
C. Common hepatic duct and portal vein
D. Gallbladder fundus and liver bed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The critical view of safety in laparoscopic cholecystectomy requires clear
identification and separation of the cystic duct and cystic artery from the common bile duct and
common hepatic duct to prevent bile duct injury.
Q5: Which sterilization method is appropriate for a fiber-optic endoscope that cannot withstand
high temperatures?
A. Steam autoclave at 270°F
B. Ethylene oxide gas [CORRECT]
C. Dry heat oven at 320°F
D. Flash sterilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethylene oxide gas sterilization is the method of choice for heat-sensitive and
moisture-sensitive items such as fiber-optic endoscopes, as it provides effective sterilization at
low temperatures.
Q6: The surgical technologist notices a break in sterile technique during a procedure. What is the
appropriate immediate action?
A. Wait until the procedure is completed to report the incident
2
,3
B. Ignore the break if the surgeon does not notice
C. Address the break immediately and correct the situation [CORRECT]
D. Document the incident in the medical record only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Surgical conscience requires the surgical technologist to address any break in sterile
technique immediately, maintaining patient safety as the highest priority by correcting the
situation or calling attention to it.
Q7: Which of the following suture materials is absorbable and synthetic?
A. Silk
B. Prolene
C. Vicryl [CORRECT]
D. Surgical steel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vicryl (polyglactin 910) is a synthetic absorbable suture material that provides wound
support for approximately 21-28 days before being absorbed by the body through hydrolysis.
Q8: During a cesarean section, the surgeon makes a transverse incision in the lower uterine
segment. What is this incision called?
A. Classical incision
B. Kerr incision [CORRECT]
C. Vertical incision
D. T-incision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Kerr incision is a transverse incision made in the lower uterine segment during
cesarean section, which is preferred over the classical incision due to reduced blood loss and
decreased risk of uterine rupture in subsequent pregnancies.
Q9: Which anatomical structure is most commonly injured during thyroidectomy?
A. Vagus nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve [CORRECT]
C. Hypoglossal nerve
3
, 4
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recurrent laryngeal nerve is the structure most commonly injured during
thyroidectomy due to its close anatomical relationship with the thyroid gland and its blood
supply, potentially causing vocal cord paralysis.
Q10: The surgical technologist is preparing for a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which
instrument set is essential for this procedure?
A. Orthopedic set
B. Vaginal set
C. Major abdominal set [CORRECT]
D. ENT set
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A total abdominal hysterectomy requires a major abdominal instrument set, which
includes retractors, clamps, scissors, and needle holders appropriate for pelvic surgery through an
abdominal incision.
Q11: Which type of anesthesia provides loss of sensation to a specific area of the body while the
patient remains conscious?
A. General anesthesia
B. Regional anesthesia [CORRECT]
C. Dissociative anesthesia
D. Balanced anesthesia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Regional anesthesia involves the injection of local anesthetic agents near specific
nerves to block sensation to a defined region of the body while the patient maintains
consciousness.
Q12: During cardiac surgery, the surgeon requests cardioplegia solution. What is the primary
purpose of this solution?
A. To prevent blood clotting
B. To arrest the heart and protect the myocardium [CORRECT]
C. To increase heart rate
4
NBSTSA PSI CST EXAM REVIEW Actual
Exam 2026/2027 Complete Questions and
Verified Answers with Detailed Rationales Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: CST Exam Review
Q1: Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the surgical technologist during the
preoperative phase?
A. Administering anesthesia to the patient
B. Performing the surgical skin prep and draping [CORRECT]
C. Conducting the preoperative assessment interview
D. Prescribing prophylactic antibiotics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The surgical technologist's primary preoperative responsibility includes performing
the surgical skin prep and establishing the sterile field through proper draping techniques,
working under the supervision of the registered nurse and surgeon.
Q2: A patient is scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. Which skin prep solution is
contraindicated for use in the presence of intestinal spillage?
A. Chlorhexidine gluconate
B. Povidone-iodine [CORRECT]
C. Isopropyl alcohol
D. Hexachlorophene
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Povidone-iodine is contraindicated in the presence of intestinal spillage because it is
inactivated by organic matter such as blood, feces, and intestinal contents, reducing its
antimicrobial effectiveness.
Q3: The surgical technologist is preparing a patient for a total knee arthroplasty. Which position
is most appropriate for this procedure?
A. Supine with arms tucked
1
,2
B. Lithotomy position
C. Supine with a tourniquet applied to the thigh [CORRECT]
D. Prone position
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Total knee arthroplasty is performed with the patient in supine position, and a
pneumatic tourniquet is applied to the thigh to create a bloodless surgical field during the
procedure.
Q4: During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon requests a "critical view of safety." This
technique involves identifying which two structures?
A. Common bile duct and hepatic artery
B. Cystic duct and cystic artery [CORRECT]
C. Common hepatic duct and portal vein
D. Gallbladder fundus and liver bed
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The critical view of safety in laparoscopic cholecystectomy requires clear
identification and separation of the cystic duct and cystic artery from the common bile duct and
common hepatic duct to prevent bile duct injury.
Q5: Which sterilization method is appropriate for a fiber-optic endoscope that cannot withstand
high temperatures?
A. Steam autoclave at 270°F
B. Ethylene oxide gas [CORRECT]
C. Dry heat oven at 320°F
D. Flash sterilization
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ethylene oxide gas sterilization is the method of choice for heat-sensitive and
moisture-sensitive items such as fiber-optic endoscopes, as it provides effective sterilization at
low temperatures.
Q6: The surgical technologist notices a break in sterile technique during a procedure. What is the
appropriate immediate action?
A. Wait until the procedure is completed to report the incident
2
,3
B. Ignore the break if the surgeon does not notice
C. Address the break immediately and correct the situation [CORRECT]
D. Document the incident in the medical record only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Surgical conscience requires the surgical technologist to address any break in sterile
technique immediately, maintaining patient safety as the highest priority by correcting the
situation or calling attention to it.
Q7: Which of the following suture materials is absorbable and synthetic?
A. Silk
B. Prolene
C. Vicryl [CORRECT]
D. Surgical steel
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vicryl (polyglactin 910) is a synthetic absorbable suture material that provides wound
support for approximately 21-28 days before being absorbed by the body through hydrolysis.
Q8: During a cesarean section, the surgeon makes a transverse incision in the lower uterine
segment. What is this incision called?
A. Classical incision
B. Kerr incision [CORRECT]
C. Vertical incision
D. T-incision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Kerr incision is a transverse incision made in the lower uterine segment during
cesarean section, which is preferred over the classical incision due to reduced blood loss and
decreased risk of uterine rupture in subsequent pregnancies.
Q9: Which anatomical structure is most commonly injured during thyroidectomy?
A. Vagus nerve
B. Recurrent laryngeal nerve [CORRECT]
C. Hypoglossal nerve
3
, 4
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recurrent laryngeal nerve is the structure most commonly injured during
thyroidectomy due to its close anatomical relationship with the thyroid gland and its blood
supply, potentially causing vocal cord paralysis.
Q10: The surgical technologist is preparing for a total abdominal hysterectomy. Which
instrument set is essential for this procedure?
A. Orthopedic set
B. Vaginal set
C. Major abdominal set [CORRECT]
D. ENT set
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A total abdominal hysterectomy requires a major abdominal instrument set, which
includes retractors, clamps, scissors, and needle holders appropriate for pelvic surgery through an
abdominal incision.
Q11: Which type of anesthesia provides loss of sensation to a specific area of the body while the
patient remains conscious?
A. General anesthesia
B. Regional anesthesia [CORRECT]
C. Dissociative anesthesia
D. Balanced anesthesia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Regional anesthesia involves the injection of local anesthetic agents near specific
nerves to block sensation to a defined region of the body while the patient maintains
consciousness.
Q12: During cardiac surgery, the surgeon requests cardioplegia solution. What is the primary
purpose of this solution?
A. To prevent blood clotting
B. To arrest the heart and protect the myocardium [CORRECT]
C. To increase heart rate
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